Answer:
Correct option is A 5.01%
Explanation:
Let irr be x%
At irr,present value of inflows=present value of outflows.
1,500,000=350,000/1.0x+475,000/1.0x^2+400,000/1.0x^3+475000/1.0x^4
Hence x=irr=5.01%(Approx).
b. actual overhead and budgeted overhead based on standard hours allowed.
c. budgeted overhead based on standard hours allowed and budgeted overhead based on actual hours worked.
d. budgeted overhead based on standard hours allowed and the overhead applied to production.
Answer: Between actual overhead and budgeted overhead based on standard hours allowed---- B
ExplanatioN: The controllable variance is defined as the difference between actual expenses or overhead incurred and the budget overhead allowance based on standard hours allowed for work done. The variance is unfavorable controllable variance If the actual overhead is greater than the budgeted overhead based on standard hours allowed for work done and is termed favorable controllable variance if the opposite occurs ie actual overhead being less than budgeted overhead based on standard hours allowed for work to be done.
Answer:
The correct answer is b. after taxes minus preferred dividends.
Explanation:
Net profit:Add all the revenues of the firm and deduct all the expenses of the firm. If the amount come in positive, the firm earns profit else suffered loss.
In mathematically,
Net profit = Sales revenue - all expenses
The earning which is available to shareholders is net profit after paying preference dividend to preference shareholders.
As first we have to pay the dividend to preference shareholders then we distribute the income to equity shareholders.
In mathematically,
EBIT - taxes - Preferred dividend
Hence, the correct option is b. After taxes minus preferred dividends.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
I believe it's true. If we have a job opening for sales personnel and candidate is physically unable to walk or drive, then yes we can exclude that candidate. But once hiring manager is sure of the fact that disability will render that candidate unable to work then manager can preclude that candidate.
Answer:
The coefficient of variation for each of the four companies is:
- Treynor Pie Company = 0.25 (2/8)
- Gourmet restaurant = 0.16 (1.3/8)
- Baby food Company = 0.36 (1.8/5)
- Nutritional products Company = 0.16 (1/6)
Explanation:
In finance, the coefficient of variation is a statistical measure that represents the ratio of the standard deviation and the mean of a data series related to the return on investment. It allows investors to determine how much volatility, or risk, is assumed in comparison to the amount of return expected from investments. The lower the ratio of the standard deviation to mean return, the better risk-return trade-off.
Formula: CV=σ/μ
Where:
σ = standard deviation
μ = mean
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "B": Economies of agglomeration; corresponding diseconomies.
Explanation:
Economies of agglomeration refer to a type of economy in which companies are located one close to another to take advantage of their core competencies. This economic structure typically helps businesses to reduce relocation and delivery costs increasing their profits but in some other cases, the costs could increase if some of the firms lost their economies of scale.
Thus, metropolises in the U.S. must find ways to boost the benefit of economies of agglomeration minimizing the negative effects of the diseconomies of scale in which some firms might fall.
A) The entry to record the redemption will include __________.
O a debit of $32000 to Premium on Bonds Payable.
O debit of $2040 to Loss on Bond Redemption.
O credit of $32040 to Premium on Bonds Payable.
O credit of $2040 to Loss on Bond Redemption.
Answer:
The correct option is debit of $2040 to Loss on Bond Redemption
Explanation:
The unamortized premium on the bonds at redemption date=carrying value-face value
carrying value is $829,960
face value is $800,000
unamortized premium=$829,960-$800,000=$29,960
cash paid on redemption=$800,000*104%=$832,000.00
The appropriate entries would a credit to cash of $ 832,000 while face value is debit to bonds payable and also the unamortized premium is debited to premium on bonds payable
loss on retirement=$832,000-$829,960=$2040
The loss is debited to loss on bond redemption
The correct answer is a debit of $2040 to Loss on Bond Redemption, as the amount paid to redeem the bonds exceeded their carrying value by this amount.
Robin Corporation retired its bonds at 104% of their face value, which implies the bonds were bought back for $832,000 ($800,000 x 1.04). The bonds had a carrying value of $829,960. The difference between the redemption price and the carrying value caused a loss on bond redemption of $2,040 ($832,000 - $829,960).
Therefore, the entry to record the redemption of Robin Corporation's bonds will include a debit of $2040 to Loss on Bond Redemption. This shows that the company experienced a financial loss due to the cost of redeeming the bonds being higher than their book value.
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