b.A better divisional performance measure would be the rate of return on investment
c.A better divisional performance measure would be the residual income.
d.None of these choices would be included.
e.All of these choices (a, b & c) would be included.
Answer:
Option D
Explanation:
In simple words, method of performance division is considered to be effective when it depicts a true picture, not because it gives a sound position of the organisation as waned by the managers.
Thus, reticulation should not be done. Also, Divisional performance should be judged by some other aspects like time taken to perform the job or wastage done by them etc.
Answer:
The answer is $400,000
Explanation:
Quantity theory of money states that the quantity of money is directly proportional total spending in an economy.
Change in quantity of money = new deposits (which can also be new security) ÷ reserve requirements
The new security is $20,000
reserve requirements is 5 percent
Change in quantity of money is:
$20,000 / 0.05
=$400,000
Answer:
Accumulated depreciation on car at the end of year 2 will be 22,500
Explanation:
The unit-of use Method recognize depreciation base on the use of a cost driver. This cost driver could be miles, number of units produced, or others.
(60,000-10.000)/100,000 = .5 rate per mile
acumulated depreciation at year 2
25,000 + 20,000= 45,000 total miles driven
45,000 * 0.5 = 22,500
b. A recession caused by a drop in total spending
c. A decrease in the minimum wage
d. Increased globalization that moves the economy from a manufacturing-based economy to a more service-based economy
Answer:
Option D
Increased globalisation that moves the economy from manufacturing based economy to more service-based economy.
Explanation:
Option D
Increased globalisation that moves the economy from manufacturing based economy to more service-based economy.
As manufacturing will decrease, the number of jobs will decrease drastically because the number of industries will become small.
Answer:
It will take 3 years to have enough money to purchase the car.
Explanation:
We can use either Compounding or Discounting Formula to determine the time it will take to make $19,970 from $15,000 when the investment rate is 10%. Lets go with the Compounding Formula:
Future Value = Present Value * (1 + i) ^ n
Re-arrange equation for "n" which is the Time Period:
⇒ FV / PV = (1 + i) ^ n
Taking log on both sides;
⇒ log (FV / PV) = log (1 + i) ^ n
OR log (FV / PV) = n log (1 + i)
OR n = log (FV / PV) / log (1 + i)
Simply put values now;
⇒ n = log (19,970 / 15,000) / log (1 + 10%) = log (1.33) / log (1.1) = .12 / .04
OR n = 3
Answer:
Option c. 0.73
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Market value of securities = $5,000
Current beta of the portfolio = 1.28
Beta of the riskiest security = 1.75
Required beta = 1.15
Now,
let the beta of the other security be 'x'
Portfolio beta = weighted average of individual betas in the portfolio
or
1.28 × 8 × $5000 = [ x × (8 - 1) × $5000 ] + [ 1.75 × $5000 ]
or
$51,200 = $35,000x + $8750
or
$35,000x = $42,450
or
x = 1.21
Thus,
If she wishes to reduce the beta to 1.15, by replacing the riskiest security,
let the beta of the replacement security be 'y'
Therefore,
1.15 × 8 × $5000 = [ 1.21 × (8 - 1 ) × $5000 ] + [ y × $5000 ]
or
$46,000 = $42,350 + $5,000y
or
$5,000y = $3,650
or
y = 0.73
Hence,
Option c. 0.73