Answer:
Emf induced in the loop is 0.02V
Explanation:
To get the emf of induced loop, we have to use faraday's law
ε = - dΦ/dt
To get the flux, we use;
Φ = BA cos(θ)
B = The uniform magnetic field
A = Area of rectangular loop
θ = angle between magnetic field and normal to the plane of loop
substitute the flux equation (Φ) into the faraday's equation
we have ε = - d(BA cos(θ)) / dt
ε = BA sinθ dθ/dt
from the question;B = 0.18T, A=0.15m2, θ = π/2 ,dθ/dt = 0.75rad/s
Our equation will now look like this;
ε = (0.18T) (0.15m2) (sin(π/2)) (0.75rad/s)
ε = 0.02V
Answer:
t = 39.60 s
Explanation:
Let's take a careful look at this interesting exercise.
In the first case the two motors apply the force in the same direction
F = m a₀
a₀ = F / m
with this acceleration it takes t = 28s to travel a distance, starting from rest
x = v₀ t + ½ a t²
x = ½ a₀ t²
t² = 2x / a₀
28² = 2x /a₀ (1)
in a second case the two motors apply perpendicular forces
we can analyze this situation as two independent movements, one in each direction
in the direction of axis a, there is a motor so its force is F/2
the acceleration on this axis is
a = F/2m
a = a₀ / 2
so if we use the distance equation
x = v₀ t + ½ a t²
as part of rest v₀ = 0
x = ½ (a₀ / 2) t²
let's clear the time
t² = (2x / a₀) 2
we substitute the let of equation 1
t² = 28² 2
t = 28 √2
t = 39.60 s
Answer:
The constant speed of second submarine is 31.16 km/hr
Explanation:
Given that
v₁=20 km/hr ,d₁= 500 Km
v₂=40 km/hr ,d₂=500 km
v₃=30 km/hr, d₃=500 km
v₄=50 km/hr ,d₄=500 km
We know that
Displacement = Velocity x Time
d = v t
Total displacement = Average velocity x Total time
Now by putting the values
So the constant speed of second submarine will be the average speed of first submarine because they have to meet at the same time.
The constant speed of second submarine is 31.16 km/hr
Answer:
0.0000000026 T
Explanation:
= Maximum electric field strength = 0.78 V/m
= Maximum magnetic field strength
c = Speed of light =
Relation between amplitudes of electric and magnetic fields is given by
The amplitude of the magnetic field is 0.0000000026 T
Answer:
The current pass through the coil is 6.25 A
Explanation:
Given that,
Diameter = 25 cm
Magnetic field = 1.0 mT
Number of turns = 100
We need to calculate the current
Using the formula of magnetic field
Where, N = number of turns
r = radius
I = current
Put the value into the formula
Hence, The current passes through the coil is 6.25 A
Explanation:
Below is an attachment containing the solution.
The baseball curves better at a flatplain due to contacting with air.
A curveball is a breaking pitch with more movement than most other pitches. It is thrown slower and with more overall break than a slider and is used to throw hitters off balance.
On a flat plain, a baseball will curve down better. This is due to the curving being caused by the ball contacting air and being pushed in a specificdirection.
The spin, speed, and location of the ball's stitches in relation to the air will all influence how it changes direction when pushed against.
Consider throwing a baseball in a vacuum where there is no air. Because there is no air to push on the ball, it will not curve at all.
Thus, a flat plain area will be better for baseball curve.
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A baseball will curve better down on a flat plain.In view of the fact that the curving is caused by the ball contacting the air and pushing the ball in a particular direction.