A call bond option is termed as the option that implies the bondholder the right to purchase the bonds at the prevailing price in the market. A buyer of a bond call option in the secondary market forecasts a drop in investment substantial rise in bond prices.
The correct option is a. I, II, and III only
Option a. I, II, and III only is correct because The contract value will decline as it reaches maturation because it will become less unpredictable.
The goal of purchasing a call option is to benefit if the price of the underlying stock rises. The attractiveness of the callable bond falls as the price of bitcoin declines, and the worth of the call option reduces as well.
The exercise price is the price where the individual who acquires a call option will be able to acquire the underlying shares. If this price is too high, the benefit from buying the stock at maturity will be too little, diminishing the value of the specified call option.
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Answer: a. I, II, and III only
Explanation:
The exercise price refers to the amount that the person who buys the call option will get to buy the underlying stock at. If this price is high, the profit from buying the stock at maturity will be less so the value of the listed call option reduces.
As the contract approaches maturity, the value will decrease because it will be less volatile as it approaches maturity.
The purpose of buying a call option is so that a profit can be made if the underlying stock increases in value. If the stock decreases in value, the allure of the call option decreases so therefore will the value.
Answer: The answer is as follows:
Explanation:
Given that,
Cash = $16,000
Inventory = $16,000 fair value (inside basis $8,000)
Accounts receivable with a fair value = $8,000 (inside basis of $12,000) to Daniela
Daniela's basis = $20,000
JRD basis = cash + inventory + accounts receivables
= 16,000 + 2,000 + 2,000
=$20,000
Out of $20,000,
Pending amount for inventory and accounts receivable allocation:
= JRD basis - Cash basis
= $20,000 - $16,000
= $4,000
This pending amount is allocated equally among the inventory and accounts receivable i.e, $2,000 is allocated to inventory and $2,000 is allocated to accounts receivable.
Daniela's basis in the distributed inventory is $2,000, and her basis in the accounts receivable is $3,000.
Daniela's basis in the distributed inventory and accounts receivable can be calculated using the proportionate distribution method. To determine the basis in the distributed inventory, we calculate the inside basis of $8,000 multiplied by Daniela's partnership interest of 25%, which equals $2,000. As for the accounts receivable, we calculate the inside basis of $12,000 multiplied by Daniela's partnership interest of 25%, which equals $3,000.
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Sales revenue $404,100
Cost of goods sold 234,000
Gross profit 170,100
Expenses (including $16,700 interest and $26,400 income taxes) 83,500
Net income $ 86,600
Additional information:
1. Common stock outstanding January 1, 2022, was 24,700 shares, and 37,100 shares were outstanding at December 31, 2022.
2. The market price of Skysong stock was $14 in 2022.
3. Cash dividends of $22,900 were paid, $4,900 of which were to preferred stockholders.
Compute the following measures for 2022. (Round all answers to 2 decimal places, e.g. 1.83 or 2.51%)
(a) Earnings per share $enter earnings per share in dollars
(b) Price-earnings ratio enter price-earnings ratio in times times
(c) Payout ratio enter payout ratio in percentages % (d) Times interest earned enter times interest earned times
Answer:
Earnings per share
= Net income - Preferred dividend
No of common stocks outstanding at the end
= $86,600 - $4,900
37, 100 shares
= $2.20 per share
b. Price-earnings ratio
= Market price per share
Earnings per share
= $14
$2.20
= 6.36
c. Pay-out ratio
= Ordinary dividend paid x 100
Earnings after preferred dividend
= $18,000 x 100
$81,700
= 22.03%
c. Times interest earned
= Earnings before interest and tax
Interest expense
= Net income + Interest expense+ Tax
Interest expense
= $86,600 + $16,700 + $26,400
$16,700
= 7.77 times
Explanation:
Earnings per share equals net income minus preferred dividend divided by number of common stocks outstanding at the end of the year.
Price-earnings ratio is market price price per share divided by earnings per share.
Pay-out ratio is ordinary dividend paid divided by earnings after preferred dividend.
Times interest earned is earnings before interest and tax divided by interest expense. Earnings before interest and tax equals net income plus interest expense plus income tax.
Answer:
total ending WIP value 39,334.20
transferred-out 432.078.00
Explanation:
Ending work in proces inventory
we multiply the equivalent units by the cost per equivlent unit
materials 2,200 x 15.26 = 33,572
converion 940 x 6.13 = 5,762.2
then, we add them to get thetotal value of the ending WIP
total ending WIP value 39,334,2
for the transferred out, we add both equivalent cost as this are complete.
And multiply by the whole amount 20,200
trasnferred out: 20,200 x (15.26 + 6.13) = 432.078
b. role incumbents
c. supervisors
d. job applicants
Answer:
Option d: Job applicant
Explanation:
A job is simply defined as a group of related activities/duties.
Job Analysis is simply the task of collection information about the job that is to identification of tasks, duties, responsibilities and others that is done by human resources (HR) department, by observing, surveys, interviews, and other means. In Job analysis, there are different people or unit to consult in an organization when carrying it out e. g supervisor. A job applicant have no business with a job analysis as it is not up to them or within their domain/jurisdiction.
A security's beta is calculated by dividing the security's return covariance with the return on the market portfolio by the market return variance. As a result, choice (C) is the best way to respond.
A stock's beta (β) value is a gauge of how volatile its returns are compared to those of the broader market. It is a crucial component of the Capital Asset Pricing Model and is utilized as a risk indicator (CAPM). A corporation with a higher beta has more risk as well as higher anticipated rewards.
One way to determine beta is to first divide the standard deviation of returns for the security by the standard deviation of returns for the benchmark. The correlation between the security's returns and the returns of the benchmark is multiplied by the resulting value.
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Answer:
Beta of a security is the covariance of the security return with the return on the market portfolio divided by variance of the market return.
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
Beta of a security is calculated as covariance (Ri,Rm) divided by Variance of the market return. Beta is used for measuring the systematic risk of a security.
Answer:
A joint venture
Explanation:
A joint venture -
It refers to as the business agreement between two or more groups in order to attain a common goal collectively , is referred to as joint venture .
The parties comes together with their resources to accomplish the goal together .
The common project can be a new business or any existing business .
In a joint venture , the profit and loss is equally shared among each of the member .
Hence , from the given scenario of the question ,
The correct answer is joint venture .
Answer:
Export minimum public procurement policy
Explanation:
'Chinese government allowing foreign companies to participate in its market only if those companies agree to establish operations with local Chinese enterprises' : illustrates the case of - 'Export minimum public procurement policy'
This is a policy adopted by various economies. The policy states that foreign companies should use a minimum level of inputs from their domestic medium & small scale enterprises. This is to create equitable growth opportunities for the MSMEs. As MSMEs are important by perspective of - regionally balanced growth, income equity, employment opportunities generation ; they need this protection.