Answer:
GDP= $1,200
Explanation:
From the question above, we are given the following values
Consumption expenditure= $800
Investment expenditures= $200
Government purchases= $300
Imports= $100
Exports= $200
Wages= $800
Therefore the Gross Domestic Product(GDP) can be calculated as follows
GDP=Consumption+investment+government spending+(export-import)
= $800+$200+$300+($100-$200)
= $800+$200+$300+(-$100)
= $800+$200+$300-$100
= $1,200
Hence the Gross Domestic Product (in billions of dollars) for this economy is $1,200
Answer
The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.
Explanation
You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.
Suppose that Spain and Germany consider trading shoes and jeans with each other. Spain can gain from specialization and trade as long as it receives more than ------ of jeans for each pair of shoes it exports to Germany. Similarly, Germany can gain from trade as long as it receives more than--------- of shoes for each pair of jeans it exports to Spain.
Based on your answer to the last question, which of the following prices of trade (that is, price of shoes in terms of jeans) would allow both Germany and Spain to gain from trade?
4 pairs of jeans per pair of shoes, 1 pair of jeans per pair of shoes, 6 pairs of jeans per pair of shoes, 2 pairs of jeans per pair of shoes
Answer:
By comparing the opportunity cost of producing shoes in the two countries, you can tell that SPAIN has a comparative advantage in the production of shoes and GERMANY has a comparative advantage in the production of jeans.
Suppose that Spain and Germany consider trading shoes and jeans with each other. Spain can gain from specialization and trade as long as it receives more than 3 PAIRS of jeans for each pair of shoes it exports to Germany. Similarly, Germany can gain from trade as long as it receives more than ¹/₁₁ PAIR of shoes for each pair of jeans it exports to Spain.
Based on your answer to the last question, which of the following prices of trade (that is, price of shoes in terms of jeans) would allow both Germany and Spain to gain from trade?
Explanation:
Opportunity costs refer to the extra costs or benefits lost resulting from choosing one investment or activity over another alternative. In this case, if Spain specializes in the production of shoes, it will not produce jeans anymore. The opposite would happen to Germany.
Answer:
D. It will decrease the output level
Explanation:
Answer: d
Explanation:
Answer:
$343,725; $200,850
Explanation:
(a) The total incremental cost of making 51,500 units is calculated as below:
Total Relevant Costs:
= Variable Cost Per Unit + Fixed Manufacturing Costs
= (Relevant Amount Per Unit × No. of units) + Fixed Manufacturing Costs
= ($5.15 × 51,500) + $78,500
= $265,225 + $78,500
= $343,725
Therefore, the total incremental cost of making 51,500 units is $343,725.
(b) The total incremental cost of buying 51,500 units is determined as below:
Total Relevant Costs = Purchase Price Per Unit × No. of units
= $3.90 × 51,500
= $200,850
Therefore, the total incremental cost of buying 51,500 units is $200,850.
(c) The company should buy the component from outside supplier as it results in a lower total incremental cost of $200,850.
Given Information:
Rent = $20,000,000
Materials and Wages = $10,000/tractor
Number of tractors = 2,000
Amount spent on R&D = $3 million
Required Information:
Lowest price to sell atractor= ?
Answer:
Lowest price to sell atractor= at least $20,000
Calculations & Explanation:
The company needs to sell at least at a price that all of its manufacturing cost can be recovered without the profit margin.
This happens at a break-even point where total revenue equals the total manufacturing cost.
Total manufacturing cost = Total revenue
The revenue is number of tractors multiplied by some price x
Total revenue = 2,000*x
Total manufacturing cost = fixed cost + Variable cost
Total manufacturing cost = 20,000,000 + 2,000(10,000)
Total manufacturing cost = 20,000,000 + 20,000,000
Total manufacturing cost = 40,000,000
so,
Total manufacturing cost = Total revenue
40,000,000 = 2,000*x
x = 40,000,000/2,000
x = $20,000
Therefore, the lowest price to sell each tractor should be atleast $20,000
Note: The R&D cost is not usually included in such scenarios because R&D cost is sunk and should not be added in these calculations.
Answer:
The markup percentage is 40%
Explanation:
The computation of the markup percentage is shown below:
Markup percentage is
= Return on investment ÷ Total cost
= ($2,200,000 × 16%) ÷ ($430,000 + $450,000)
= $352,000 ÷ $880,000
= 40%
Hence, the markup percentage is 40%
We simply applied the above formula
And, the same is to be considered
Sales would be ignored in this case