Answer:
Payback period = 3.6 years
Annual rate of return = 11.50%
NPV = 243.59
Explanation:
The payback period: The estimated number of years it will take the initial cost to be recouped.
Payback period= initial cost/ Net cash inflow
= 183,600/51,000
= 3.6 years
Annual rate of return is the average annual income as a percentage of average investment
Annual rate of return = annual net income/ average investment
Average investment =( Initial,cost + scrap value)/2
= (183,600 + 0)/2 = 91,800
Annual rate of return = (10,557/91,800)× 100
= 11.50%
Net Present Value = The present value of cash inflow less the initial cost
PV of cash inflow = A × (1- (1+r)^(-n))/r
= 51,000 × (1- (1.12)^(-5)/0.12
= 183,843.59
NPV = 183,843.59 - 183,600
= 243.59
Answer:
60
Explanation:
Han Products could save $20,000 per year by accepting the outside supplier's offer for part S-6, when factoring in all costs including ongoing fixed overhead and potential new facility rental income.
The financial advantage or disadvantage of accepting the outside supplier’s offer is determined by calculating the difference between current in-house production costs and the cost offer from the supplier, which includes any potential new income or ongoing overheads.
Currently Han Products’ cost for making 30,000 units of S-6 is $25 per part, or $750,000 per year. If they accept the supplier’s offer, they will pay $21 per part, or $630,000 per year. This already offers a clear cost savings of $120,000 per year.
However, Han Products will still need to pay two-thirds of the current fixed manufacturing overhead, which is $9 per part, or $270,000 per year. Two-thirds of that is $180,000. So, $630,000 (supplier cost) plus $180,000 (ongoing overheads) equals $810,000.
The company could also gain an additional $80,000 by renting out its facilities, bringing the total cost down to $730,000 per year. So, the financial advantage of accepting the outside supplier’s offer is $20,000 ($750,000 original cost - $730,000 total cost with supplier).
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The financial advantage or disadvantage of accepting the outside supplier's offer is determined by comparing the total cost per part if purchased from the outside supplier to the total cost per part if manufactured internally by Han Products. In this case, if Han Products accepts the offer, it would have a financial disadvantage of $2.00.
To determine the financial advantage or disadvantage of accepting the outside supplier's offer, we need to calculate the total cost per part if it is purchased from the outside supplier and compare it to the total cost per part if it is manufactured internally by Han Products.
If Han Products accepts the offer, the cost per part would be $21. However, there are certain costs that would still be incurred even if the part is purchased from the outside supplier, such as two-thirds of the fixed manufacturing overhead. Therefore, the total cost per part if purchased from the outside supplier would be:
$21 + (2/3) * $9 = $27
On the other hand, the total cost per part if manufactured internally would be $25.00 as given in the question.
Comparing the two costs, we can calculate the financial advantage or disadvantage as:
Total cost per part (internal manufacturing) - Total cost per part (purchased from outside supplier)
= $25.00 - $27.00 = -$2.00
This means that Han Products would have a financial disadvantage of $2.00 if it accepts the outside supplier's offer.
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Answer:
It will take 3 years to have enough money to purchase the car.
Explanation:
We can use either Compounding or Discounting Formula to determine the time it will take to make $19,970 from $15,000 when the investment rate is 10%. Lets go with the Compounding Formula:
Future Value = Present Value * (1 + i) ^ n
Re-arrange equation for "n" which is the Time Period:
⇒ FV / PV = (1 + i) ^ n
Taking log on both sides;
⇒ log (FV / PV) = log (1 + i) ^ n
OR log (FV / PV) = n log (1 + i)
OR n = log (FV / PV) / log (1 + i)
Simply put values now;
⇒ n = log (19,970 / 15,000) / log (1 + 10%) = log (1.33) / log (1.1) = .12 / .04
OR n = 3
2. Depreciation expense
3. Issuance of a note payable
4. Increase in inventory
Answer:
Patent-investing activity
depreciation expense-operating activity
issuance of note payable-financing activity
Increase in inventory-operating activity
Explanation:
The purchase of patent as intangible asset is reported as an investing activity item as an outflow of cash from the business.
Depreciation expense is meant to added to net income in arriving at the net cash flows from operating activities
Issuance of a note payable is a financing item under the financing activities' segment of the cash flow as an inflow.
Increase in inventory is increase in net working capital which is deducted as an operating activity item .
Answer:
1. Purchase of a patent - Investing activities
2. Depreciation expense - Operating activities
3. Issuance of a note payable - Financing activity
4. Increase in inventory - Operating activity
Explanation:
Operating activity of cash flows include cash inflows and cash outflows from day to day business activities. This includes cash flows use from ongoing business activities.
Investing activity of cash flows includes cash inflows and cash outflows from investments of the business. This includes purchase of assets, sale of assets, investment in securities.
Financing activity of cash flows include cash inflows and cash outflows to fund the company. The activities that are incurred to fiance the business are classified as financing activity.
Answer:
Total expense= $104,022.6
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
The company expects to spend $6000 one year from now, $9000 three years from now, and $10,000 each year in years 6 through 10.
The interest rate is 12%.
We need to use the following formula:
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
FV= 6000*(1.12)^9= 16,638.47
FV= 9000*(1.12)^7= 19,896.13
Total= $36,534.6
For the last three we need to use the following formula:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual deposit
FV= {10000*[(1.12^3)-1]}/0.12= 67,488
Total expense= 67,488 + 36,534.6= $104,022.6
A) The entry to record the redemption will include __________.
O a debit of $32000 to Premium on Bonds Payable.
O debit of $2040 to Loss on Bond Redemption.
O credit of $32040 to Premium on Bonds Payable.
O credit of $2040 to Loss on Bond Redemption.
Answer:
The correct option is debit of $2040 to Loss on Bond Redemption
Explanation:
The unamortized premium on the bonds at redemption date=carrying value-face value
carrying value is $829,960
face value is $800,000
unamortized premium=$829,960-$800,000=$29,960
cash paid on redemption=$800,000*104%=$832,000.00
The appropriate entries would a credit to cash of $ 832,000 while face value is debit to bonds payable and also the unamortized premium is debited to premium on bonds payable
loss on retirement=$832,000-$829,960=$2040
The loss is debited to loss on bond redemption
The correct answer is a debit of $2040 to Loss on Bond Redemption, as the amount paid to redeem the bonds exceeded their carrying value by this amount.
Robin Corporation retired its bonds at 104% of their face value, which implies the bonds were bought back for $832,000 ($800,000 x 1.04). The bonds had a carrying value of $829,960. The difference between the redemption price and the carrying value caused a loss on bond redemption of $2,040 ($832,000 - $829,960).
Therefore, the entry to record the redemption of Robin Corporation's bonds will include a debit of $2040 to Loss on Bond Redemption. This shows that the company experienced a financial loss due to the cost of redeeming the bonds being higher than their book value.
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