Answer:
Calculate the tax consequence of withdrawal from retirement account.
T and L are 40 years old and decide to withdraw $2,100 from their IRA. They lie in a 35% marginal tax bracket.
Analysis
They are withdrawing some amount from their retirement fund. They have to pay the tax and penalty for early withdrawals from the retirement fund. The withdrawal amount is $2,100 so they have to pay tax on it. The tax rate will be 35% which is their marginal tax bracket.
Calculation of tax consequences if withdrawal amount is $2,100:
Ordinary income tax amount calculates by multiplying the withdrawal amount with the ordinary tax rate.
= $2100 × 35%
= $735
The withdrawal amount attracts the 10% penalty. So, the penalty amount is calculated as follows: Penalty on withdrawn funds calculates by multiplying the withdrawn funds with the percentage of penalty.
= $2100 × 10%
= $210
(NOTE: - T and L have to pay ordinary income tax along with the penalty on their withdrawal because they are withdrawing funds from their IRA before age 59.5.)
Total expenses include the tax amount and penalty charge on withdrawal amount. So, it is calculated as follows:
Total expenses =$735 + $210
Total expenses = $945
Conclusion
Therefore, T and L would incur a tax of $945 on their withdrawal. This $945 is the sum of income tax amount and penalty on withdrawal balance.
B) income
C) discount. price.
E) breakeven quantity.
Answer:
D. Price
Explanation:
Price is the amount that is paid by the buyer to the seller in the purchase of the product. And it also deals in exchange for a product which we called barter. The more or less amount while exchange the product is also known as price
It is a measure of an item.
According to the given situation, the most appropriate option is d. as it says that the seller is willing to accept in a given time and in given circumstances that means he is ready for negotiation.
Answer:
3,074 units sold or total revenue of $236,698 per year
Explanation:
cost of machine $540,000
depreciation expense per year = $540,000 / 5 = $108,000
contribution margin per unit sold = $77 - $29 = $48
we generally calculate the financial break even point of a business by using the following formula:
= EBIT × (1 - interest expense) × (1 - tax rate) - preferred dividends
But when we are dealing with projects, the financial break even point is the sales level at which the project's NPV = $0. If the sales level is lower, then the project will be rejected, and if the sales level is higher, then it should be accepted.
using an annuity formula, the free cash flow per year needed for the NPV = $0 is $540,000 / 3.8897 (PV annuity factor, 9%, 5 periods) = $138,828.19
$138,828.19 = {[(unit sales x $48) - $108,000] x 0.78} + $108,000
$30,828.19 = [(unit sales x $48) - $108,000] x 0.78
$39,523.32 = (unit sales x $48) - $108,000
$147,523.32 = unit sales x $48
unit sales = $147,523.32 / $48 = 3,073.40 units ≈ 3,074 units sold
The financial break-even point is approximately 5,104 units.
The financial break-even point can be calculated by determining the number of units that need to be sold in order to cover the fixed costs. First, we need to calculate the contribution margin per unit, which is the sales price per unit minus the variable cost per unit. In this case, it is $77 - $29 = $48. Next, we divide the fixed costs by the contribution margin per unit to find the break-even point in units. Using the formula: Break-even point (in units) = Fixed costs / Contribution margin per unit. Plugging in the numbers, we get: $245,000 / $48 = 5,104.17. Therefore, the financial break-even point is approximately 5,104 units.
#SPJ11
Answer:
$55.50
Explanation:
The bid price is $55,25 is the price applicable to investors would intend to sell their investment.
The ask price is $55.50 is the price applicable to investors who wish to acquire the Fincorp stock.
The prices have been computed in such a way that the broker will always gain, whether an investor is buying or selling his/her stake.
Conclusively, the order given to the broker to buy at market would be executed at the ask price of $55.50, not the other way round.
Answer:
Pakistan's GDP is 13.81 trillions of rupees.
Explanation:
GDP = C + I + G + NX
Here:
C = 10.50
I = 1.30
G= 2.80
NX = (1.30 - 2.09) = -0.79
GDP = 10.50 + 1.30 + 2.80 - 0.79
GDP = 13.81
b. She received $7,000 of interest income from corporate bonds she received several years ago. This is her only source of income. She is 16 years old at year-end.
c. She received $7,000 of interest income from corporate bonds she received several years ago. This is her only source of income. She is 20 years old at year-end and is a full-time student. (Do not round intermediate calculations.)
d. She received $7,000 of qualified dividend income. This is her only source of income. She is 16 years old at year-end
Answer
The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.
Step-by-step explanation:
You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Given a certain production level, cost minimization is equal to product maximization. Cost minimization refers to the production level where average total cost per unit is lowest. On the other hand, production maximization refers to maximizing product output given certain restraints, e.g. amount of raw materials, number of labor hours, etc. Product maximization basically refers to the efficiency of production.
If someone can achieve product maximization and cost minimization, they should be maximizing profit.