Answer:
Value of the ending inventory=$600,000
Option A is correct ($600,000)
Explanation:
Given Data:
Ending inventory=6,000 units
Direct labor per unit =$40
Direct materials per unit=$20
Variable overhead per unit =$10
Fixed overhead per unit=$30
Required:
Value of the ending inventory=?
Solution:
Value of the ending inventory=(Direct labor per unit+Direct materials per unit+Variable overhead per unit + Fixed overhead per unit)*Ending inventory
Value of the ending inventory=($40+$20+$10+$30)*6000
Value of the ending inventory=$100*6000
Value of the ending inventory=$600,000
Option A is correct ($600,000)
The value of the ending inventory using the absorption costing method for Guillotine Corporation is $600,000. This is calculated by adding the relevant per unit costs, which total $100 per unit, and then multiplying by the number of units in the ending inventory.
The absorption costing method includes both variable and fixed manufacturing costs, such as direct labor, direct materials, and both variable and fixed overhead, in the valuation of inventory.
In Guillotine Corporation's case, the costs per unit would be added together: $40 (direct labor) + $20 (direct materials) + $10 (variable overhead) + $30 (fixed overhead), which equals $100 per unit. Notice that the selling and administrative costs are not included in the valuation because absorption costing only includes manufacturing costs.
To find the value of the ending inventory, we then multiply the cost per unit ($100) with the number of units in the ending inventory (6,000 units). Therefore, 6,000 units * $100/unit = $600,000. Therefore, answer a) $600,000 is correct.
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Individual Web pages or clusters of pages that function as supplements to a primary site are microsites.
To learn more about Microsites refer,
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Answer:
a. Gross pay for the week = $2,240
b. net pay for the week = $683
Explanation:
a) gross pay for the week = total amount earned, before the deduction of taxes and other charges, it is calculated as follows:
amount earned per hour = $32
amount earned in excess of 40 hours = 1.5 × 32 = $48 per hour
Total hour worked = 60 hours
This means that in the first 40 hours, the employee earned 32$ per hour and $48 per hour for the next 20 hours
∴ amount earned in the first 40 hours = 32 × 40 = $1,280
amount earned in the next 20 hours = 48 × 20 = $960
∴ Gross pay for the week = 1,280 + 960 = $2,240
b) net pay for the week = Gross pay - (Total deductions)
Deductions are as follows:
social security tax rate = 6.0% of gross pay = 0.06 × 2,240 = $134.4
Medicare tax rate = 1.5% of gross pay = 0.015 × 2,240 = $33.6
Federal income tax = $515
Total deductions = 134.4 + 33.6 + 515 = $683
∴ Net pay for the week = 2,240 - 683 = $1,557
Cultural competence
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Answer:
warranty liability $ 130,000
Explanation:
the warrant liability will de clared based on sales volume and the expected warranty expenditures associate with sales.
This is done to match the expenses of the warranty with the period on which are generated. If don't further period will have expenditures which related to sales of prior periods.
Having said that we proceeds:
warranty liability:
15,000,000 x 1% = 150,000
warranty expenditures (20,000)
net 130,000
the company still spect this sales will generate additioal warranty expenditres for 130,000 dollars. this is a liability.
Based on an expected 1% of sales as warranty costs, Right Medical should report a warranty liability of $130,000 at year-end, subtracting the actual costs ($20,000) from the expected costs ($150,000).
The question revolves around estimating the warranty liability that Right Medical should report at the end of the year after introducing a new implant with a five-year warranty. Based on industry standards, warranty costs are expected to be 1% of sales. The company did indeed incur actual warranty expenditures of $20,000, however, the expectation based on sales would be $150,000 (1% of $15 million). Since the actual expenditures are lower than expected, the company should report the difference between the expected cost (calculated as 1% of sales) and the actual cost as the warranty liability. Therefore, Right Medical should report a liability of $150,000 - $20,000 = $130,000 at the end of the year.
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Answer:
1) a. $13,857 : b. $15,676 : c. $10,161
Explanation:
(a) Straight-line depreciation:
depreciation expense per year = ($147,000 - $50,000) / 7 = $13,857 per year
(b) 150% declining balance depreciation:
150% depreciation = 1/7 x 1.5 = 21.42%
depreciation expense year 1 = $147,000 x 1/7 x 1.5 = $31,500
depreciation expense year 2 = $115,500 x 1/7 x 1.5 = $24,750
depreciation expense year 3 = $90,750 x 1/7 x 1.5 = $19,446
depreciation expense year 4 = $71,304 x 1/7 x 1.5 = $15,279 (this number is similar to $15,676, so I will choose that number. Depreciation % may vary a little due to rounding)
(c) 40% bonus depreciation with the balance using 5-year MACRS:
depreciation expense year 1 = $147,000 x 40% = $58,800
depreciation expense year 2 = $88,200 x 32% = $28,224
depreciation expense year 3 = $88,200 x 19.20% = $16,934
depreciation expense year 4 = $88,200 x 11.52% = $10,161