Answer: 1. Low
2. False
3. False
Explanation:
1. The owners' goal is to keep players' salaries Low.
As the text says, Oligopolist buyers would try to reduce the price of goods that they buy. In the MLB world, the teams are the buyers and the players are the sellers with the salaries being their price. Team owners will therefore try to keep salaries at a low level so that they make more profit.
2. False
This goal is not difficult to achieve due to budget differences but rather because different payers offer varying contributions to the team's game. Some players push the team forward more and hence are able to demand their fair share. This makes it difficult to cap their salaries.
3. False
They only tried to impose the salary cap so that they could reduce the cost of running the basketball teams and not to prevent teams from cheating. The salaries they were paying were high enough that they felt they weren't making enough profit. So they conspired to impose a salary cap so that they could make more profit.
Answer:
$410,000
Explanation:
Residual income = operating income - (rate of return*average operating assets)
= $690,000-(14%*$2,000,000)
=$690,000-$280,000
=$410,000
Therefore the Top Hat Division's Residual Income (RI) would be $410,000
Answer:
Explanation:
check the file attached for full explanation
At the time the mortgage is obtained, approximately $850,000 of the $900,000 would be classified as a long-term liability.
In the first year, the company pays $20,000 of the principal. In the second year, it pays $30,000 of the principal. This means that by the end of the second year, the company has paid a total of $20,000 + $30,000 = $50,000 of the principal.
Now, the remaining principal balance is $900,000 - $50,000 = $850,000.
Since the company will pay the remainder of the principal evenly over the final 28 years, you can calculate the annual principal payment for the remaining term:
$850,000 / 28 years = $30,357.14 per year (rounded to the nearest cent).
At the time the mortgage payable is obtained, the long-term liability portion of the mortgage is the total principal amount to be paid after the first two years. Therefore, it is:
$20,000 (Year 1 principal payment) + $30,000 (Year 2 principal payment) + ($30,357.14 x 28) ≈ $850,000.
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The amount of the $900,000 mortgage payable classified as a long-term liability is $870,000.
To determine the amount of the $900,000 mortgage payable that would be classified as a long-term liability at the time the mortgage is obtained, we need to calculate the portion of the principal that will be paid over the first year, second year, and the remaining 28 years.
Therefore, the amount of the $900,000 mortgage payable that would be classified as a long-term liability at the time of obtaining the mortgage is the sum of the principal payments in the first year and the remaining principal payment over the final 28 years: $20,000 + $850,000 = $870,000.
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B. Recoverability test but not fair value test
C. Not recoverability test but fair value test
D. Neither recoverability test nor fair value test
Answer: The correct answer is "C. Not recoverability test but fair value test".
Explanation: The impairment test to be used is Not recoverability test but fair value test. To determine whether intangibles of indefinite life have deteriorated and must present another value in their balance sheet, they must implement the fair value test.
Answer:
Increase cash by $4,000 and Increase common stock by $4,000
Explanation:
Demonstration of how to record Jack Pickle
transaction in the accounting equation
Since we were told that Jack Pickle decided to start a small business in form of a corporation in which his initial investment was the sum of $4,000 cash and the cash was in exchange for common stock, therefore using accounting equation this means when we want to record Jack Pickle transactions we have to increase the cash by the sum of $4,000 and the increase common stock by the sum of $4,000.
Increase cash by $4,000 and Increase common stock by $4,000