. An electron moving at 4.00×103m/s in a 1.25-T magnetic field experiences a magnetic force of 1.40×10−16N . What angle does the velocity of the electron make with the magnetic field? There are two answers.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Answer: 9.59° and 350.41°

Explanation: The formulae that relates the force F exerted on a moving charge q with velocity v in a magnetic field of strength B is given as

F =qvB sin x

Where x is the angle between the strength of magnetic field and velocity of the charge.

q = 1.609×10^-19 C

v = 4×10³ m/s

B = 1.25 T

F = 1.40×10^-16 N

By substituting the parameters, we have that

1.40×10^-16 = 1.609×10^-19 × 4×10³ × 1.25 × sinx

sin x = 1.40×10^-16/ 1.609×10^-19 × 4×10³ × 1.25

sin x = 1.40×10^-16 /8.045*10^(-16)

sin x = 0.1666

x = 9.59°

The value of sin x is positive in first and fourth quadrant.

Hence to get the second value of x, we move to the 4th quadrant of the trigonometric quadrant which is 360 - x

Hence = 360 - 9.59 = 350.41°

Related Questions

If a freely falling object were somehow equipped with a speedometer, its speedreading would increase each second bya) about 15 m/s.b) a rate that depends on its initial speed.c) a variable amount.d) about 5 m/s.e) about 10 m/s.
5. (Serway 9th ed., 7-3) In 1990, Walter Arfeuille of Belgium lifted a 281.5-kg object through a distance of 17.1 cm using only his teeth. (a) How much work was done on the object by Arfeuille in this lift, assuming the object was lifted at constant speed? (b) What total force was exerted on Arfeuille’s teeth during the lift? (Ans. (a) 472 J; (b) 2.76 kN)
The asteroid 234 Ida has a mass of about 4 × 1016 kg and an average radius of about 16 km. What is the acceleration due to gravity on 234 Ida? Assume that the asteroid is spherical; use G = 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2/kg2.A. 1 cm/s2B. 2 cm/s2C. 5 cm/s2D. 6 cm/s2
A particle (q = 5.0 nC, m = 3.0 μg) moves in a region where the magnetic field has components Bx = 2.0 mT, By = 3.0 mT, and Bz = −4.0 mT. At an instant when the speed of the particle is 5.0 km/s and the direction of its velocity is 120° relative to the magnetic field, what is the magnitude of the acceleration of the particle in m/s2?
When dots are further apart on a ticker-tape diagram, it indicates an object is moving

Which describes the motion of the box based on the resulting free-body diagram?1. It is moving up with a net force of 20 N.
2. It is moving to the right with a net force of 10 N.
3. It is in dynamic equilibrium with a net force of 0 N.
4. It is in static equilibrium with a net force of 0 N.

Answers

The statement "It is in dynamic equilibrium with a net force of 0 N" describes the motion of the box based on the resulting free-body diagram. (option 3)

What is a free-body diagram?

A free-body diagram is a diagram that shows all the forces acting on an object. If the net force on an object is zero, then the object is in equilibrium. This means that the object is not accelerating and is either at rest or moving with constant velocity.

In the case of the box in the free-body diagram, there are two forces acting on it: the force of gravity and the force of the table pushing up on the box. The force of gravity is pulling the box down, but the force of the table is pushing the box up.

These two forces are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction, so they cancel each other out. This means that the net force on the box is zero and the box is in dynamic equilibrium.

Learn about free-body diagram here brainly.com/question/10148657

#SPJ3

Answer:

4. It is in static equilibrium with a net force of 0 N.

Explanation:

Just got it right :)

You are an electrician installing the wiring in a new home. The homeowner desires that a ceiling fan with light kits be installed in five different rooms. Each fan contains a light kit that can accommodate four 60-watt lamps. Each fan motor draws a current of 1.8 amperes when operated on high speed. It is assumed that each fan can operate more than three hours at a time and therefore must be considered a continuous-duty device. The fans are to be connected to a 15-ampere circuit. Because the devices are continuous-duty, the circuit current must be limited to 80% of the continuous connected load. How many fans can be connected to a single 15-ampere circuit

Answers

Answer:

3 fans per 15 A circuit

Explanation:

From the question and the data given, the light load let fan would have been

(60 * 4)/120 = 240/120 = 2 A.

Next, we add the current of the fan motor to it, so,

2 A + 1.8 A = 3.8 A.

Since the devices are continuos duty and the circuit current must be limited to 80%, then the Breaker load max would be

0.8 * 15 A = 12 A.

Now, we can get the number if fans, which will be

12 A/ 3.8 A = 3.16 fans, or approximately, 3 fans per 15 A circuit.

Final answer:

The total power draw of each fan is 3.8 amperes. Thus, considering a limit of 80% usage of 15 amperes, only 3 fans can be connected to a single circuit to keep the total power draw below 12 amperes.

Explanation:

The question is asking how many ceiling fans, each with a certain power draw, can be connected on a single 15-ampere circuit, considering that each fan is a continuous-duty device. The power draw of each fan when the motor is operated at high speed and the light kit is fully loaded is the sum of the power draw of the motor and the light kit. As the power draw of each motor is 1.8 amperes and the light kit is 240 watts or 2 amperes (calculated using the formula Power = Voltage x Current; assuming a voltage of 120 volts), the total power draw of each fan is 3.8 amperes. Considering the limit of 80% of the continuous load, only 12 amperes (80% of 15) can be used. Thus, 3 fans can be connected to the circuit as it reaches 11.4 amperes, close enough to the 12 amperes limit.

Learn more about Circuit Capacity here:

brainly.com/question/34704571

#SPJ3

The acceleration of a particle moving along a straight line is given by a = −kt2 m/s2 where k is a constant and time t is in seconds. The initial velocity of the particle at t = 0 is v0 = 12 m/s and the particle reverses it direction of motion at t = 6 s. Determine the constant k and the displacement of the particle over the same 6-second interval of motion. Ans: k = 1/6 m/s4, Δs = 54 m

Answers

Answer:

$X - Xo = 54m$

k = 1/18

Explanation:

Data:

a = -k $t^(2)$ $(m)/(s^(2) )$

to = 0s Vo = 12m/s

t = 6s the particle chage it's moviment, so v = 0 m/s

We know that acceleration is the derivative of velocity related to time:

$a = (dV)/(dT)$

rearranging...

$a*dT = dV$

Then, we must integrate both sides:

$\int\limits^f_i {dV} \, dV =-k \int\limits^f_i {t^(2) } \, dT$

$V - Vo = -k(t^(3) )/(3)$

V = 0 because the exercise says that the car change it's direction:

$0 - 12 = -k(6^(3) )/(3)$

k = 1/6

In order to find X - Xo we must integer v*dT = dX

$V - Vo = -k(t^(3) )/(3)$

so...

$(Vo -k(t^(3) )/(3))dT = dX$

$\int\limits^f_i {dX} \, dX = \int\limits^f_i {Vo -k(t^(3) )/(3) } \, dT$

integrating...

$X - Xo = Vot -k(t^(4) )/(12)$

$X - Xo = 12*6 -(1)/(6)* (6^(4) )/(12)$

X - Xo = 54m

On a map each inch represents 25 miles what is the length of a highway if it is 6 inches long on a map

Answers

Answer:

150 hope this helps

Explanation:

Answer:

150

Explanation:

Solenoid A has total number of turns N length L and diameter D. Solenoid B has total number of turns 2N, length 2L and diameter 2D. Inductance of solenoid A is 8 times inductance of solenoid B
1/4 of inductance of solenoid B
same as inductance of solenoid B
1/8 of inductance of solenoid B
four times of inductance of solenoid B

Answers

Answer:

∴Inductance of solenoid A is $\frac18$ of inductance of solenoid B.

Explanation:

Inductance of a solenoid is

$L=N\frac\phi I$

$=N(B.A)/(I)$

$=N(\mu_0NI)/(l.I)A$

$=(\mu_0N^2A)/(l)$

$=(\mu_0N^2)/(l).\pi(\frac d2)^2$

$=\mu_0\pi(N^2d^2)/(4l)$

N= number of turns

$l$ = length of the solenoid

d= diameter of the solenoid

A=cross section area

B=magnetic induction

$\phi$ = magnetic flux

$I$ = Current

Given that, Solenoid A has total number of turns N, length L and diameter D

The inductance of solenoid A is

$=\mu_0\pi(N^2D^2)/(4L)$

Solenoid B has total number of turns 2N, length 2L and diameter 2D

The inductance of solenoid B is

$=\mu_0\pi((2N)^2(2D)^2)/(4.2L)$

$=\mu_0\pi(16 N^2D^2)/(4.2L)$

Therefore,

$\frac {\textrm{Inductance of A}}{\textrm{Inductance of B}}=(\mu_0\pi(N^2D^2)/(4L))/(\mu_0\pi(16 N^2D^2)/(4.2L))$

$\Rightarrow \frac {\textrm{Inductance of A}}{\textrm{Inductance of B}}=\frac18$

$\Rightarrow {\textrm{Inductance of A}}=\frac18* {\textrm{Inductance of B}}$

∴Inductance of solenoid A is $\frac18$ of inductance of solenoid B.

Hi there!

We can begin by calculating the inductance of a solenoid.

Recall:
$L = (\Phi _B)/(i)$

L = Inductance (H)
φ = Magnetic Flux (Wb)

i = Current (A)

We can solve for the inductance of a solenoid. We know that its magnetic field is equivalent to:
$B = \mu _0 (N)/(L)i$

And that the magnetic flux is equivalent to:
$\Phi _B = \int B \cdot dA = B \cdot A$

Thus, the magnetic flux is equivalent to:
$\Phi _B = \mu _0 (N)/(L)iA$

The area for the solenoid is the # of loops multiplied by the cross-section area, so:
$A_(total)= N * A$

$\Phi _B = \mu _0 (N^2)/(L)iA$

Using this equation, we can find how it would change if the given parameters are altered:
$\Phi_B ' = \mu_0 ((2N)^2)/(2L) i * 4A$

**The area will quadruple since a circle's area is 2-D, and you are doubling its diameter.

$\Phi'_B = (4)/(2) * 4(\mu_0 (N)/(L)iA) = 8\mu_0 (N)/(L)iA$

Thus, Solenoid B is 8 times as large as Solenoid A.

Solenoid A is 1/8 of the inductance of solenoid B.

An object of mass m moves to the right with a speed v. It collides head-on with an object of mass 3m moving with speed v/3 in the opposite direction. If the two objects stick together, what is the speed of the combined object, of mass 4m, after the collision

Answers

The speed of the combined object after collision is 0 m/s.

Total momentum before collision = total momentum after collision

m₁u₁ + m₂u₂ = (m₁ + m₂)a

m₁ = object 1 mass = m, u₁ = velocity of object 1 before collision = v, m₂ = mass of object 2 = 3m, u₂ = velocity of object 2 before collision = -v/3, a = velocity after collision

mv + 3m(-v/3) = (m + 3m)a

mv - mv = 4ma

0 = 4ma

a = 0 m/s

The speed of the combined object after collision is 0 m/s.

Find out more at: brainly.com/question/17166755

Answer:

the answer is 0 m/s

Explanation:

This question is describing the law of conservation of momentum

First object has mass =m

velocity of first object = v