Answer:
Class Boundary = 1 between the sixth and seventh classes.
Step-by-step explanation:
Lengths (mm) Frequency
1. 140 - 143 1
2. 144 - 147 16
3. 148 - 151 71
4. 152 - 155 108
5. 156 - 159 83
6. 160 - 163 18
7. 164 - 167 3
The class boundary between two classes is the numerical value between the starting value of the higher class, which is 164 for the 7th class in this case, and the ending value of the class of the lower class, which is 163 for the 6th class in this case.
Therefore the class boundary between the sixth and seventh classes
= 164 - 163 = 1
Therefore Class Boundary = 1.
It can be seen that class boundary for the frequency distribution is 1.
If we take the difference between the lower limits of one class and the lower limit of the next class then we will get the class width value.
Therefore, Class width,
w = lower limit of second class - lower limit of first class
= 144 - 140
= 4
f(x)=3x-2
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
hello friend
the answer is +
To find the inverse, interchange the variables and solve for y
(x) = +
Hope this helps
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B.5.0m/s
C.10m/s
D.15m/s
The vehicle's acceleration if its value may b assumed to be constant is 10 m/s. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
Given that, a vehicle designed to operate on a drag strip accelerates from zero to 30m/s while undergoing a straight line path displacement of 45m.
Acceleration is the name we give to any process where the velocity changes. Since velocity is a speed and a direction, there are only two ways for you to accelerate: change your speed or change your direction-or change both.
Here, Δx = 45 m, v₀ = 0 m/s and v = 30 m/s
Using the formula v² = v₀² + 2aΔx
(30 m/s)² = (0 m/s)² + 2b (45 m)
b = 10 m/s
The vehicle's acceleration if its value may b assumed to be constant is 10 m/s. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
Learn more about the acceleration here:
brainly.com/question/12550364.
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Answer:
C. 10 m/s²
Step-by-step explanation:
Given:
Δx = 45 m
v₀ = 0 m/s
v = 30 m/s
Find: a
v² = v₀² + 2aΔx
(30 m/s)² = (0 m/s)² + 2a (45 m)
a = 10 m/s²
Answer:e and f
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
1/9
Step-by-step explanation:
the slope is m in y=mx+b
hope this helps!
Answer:
Yes , this is the function
Step-by-step explanation:
Because every domain has their only one image
Answer:
(c) 0.46 million
Step-by-step explanation:
As provided immediate cash outlay = $8 million.
This will represent cash outflow at period 0, as it is made immediately, no time period has lapsed.
Cash inflows as provided and the respective present value factor are:
Year Cash Inflow Factor Discounted Value
1 $3 million 0.9091 $2,727,300
2 $4 million 0.8264 $3,305,600
3 $2 million 0.7513 $1,502,600
Total present value of cash inflow = $7,535,500
Therefore, net present value = $7,535,500 - $8,000,000 = - $464,500
That is - 0.46 million
Correct option is
(c) 0.46 million