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Answer:
$168,000
Explanation:
Depreciation expense using the double declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset
Depreciation factor = 2 x (1/useful life)
Depreciation factor = 2 x (1/10) = 0.2
depreciation expense in year 1 = 0.2 x $1,050,000 =$210,000
book value at the beginning of year 2 = $1,050,000 - $210,000 = $840,000
depreciation expense in year 2 = 0.2 x $840,000 = $168,000
Answer:
a. machine hours
Explanation:
Machine hours -
It is the measurement adapted to apply factory overhead to the manufactured goods , is referred to as machine hours .
In the field of machine environment ,
the time consumed for processing the machine is the maximum .
In case there is lesser machines in the company , the labor hours would be more .
Hence , from the given information of the question,
The correct option is a. machine hours .
Answer:
135,000 transferred out under Weighted average method
Explanation:
W/A method:
equivalent units materials 10,000 + 2,000 = 12,000 units at 100%
material cost: 690,000 + 30,000 = 720,000
720,000 / 12,000 = 60
equivalent units conversion 10,000 + 500 = 10,500
conversion cost 22,500 + 765,000 = 787,500
787,500 / 10,500 = 75
75 + 60 = 135 cost per unit
10,000 x 135 = 135,000 transferred out
Answer:
The undervaluation penalty is $560
Explanation:
Solution
Under valuation penalty applied when a person valued assets understated to save tax.
The undervaluation reduces the tax and hence comes with accuracy related penalty.
From the example, Tim undervalued the gift of $7,000 which is valued at $15,000 by IRS.
The deduction is undervalued for more than 150% and hence penalty is assessed. this is so because the income tax valuation is lower than 40%, so the penalty rate is 20%
Thus,
The calculation of overvaluation penalty is given below:
Undervaluation = $8000
Tax rate = 35%
Tax amount = $2,800
Penalty rate = 20%
Penalty on undervaluation is =$560
Therefore, the undervaluation penalty is $560
a. Is this a fair deal for you? Justify your answer with an engineering economics analysis and discussion of the situation by calculating the Net Present Value (NPV) for the scenario.
b. Draw a Cash Flow Diagram for this situation.
Answer:
a. It is not a fair deal for me.
The question is how much is $1,000 today when received in 12 months' time from now. The present value of $1,000 at 5% effective interest rate is $952 ($1,000 * 0.952). The other repayment of $1,100 in 2 years' time from now is worth $997.70 today at the 5% effective interest rate. This implies that my friend is repaying me $1,949.70 in present value terms.
For friendship sake, I may lend her the money, but in economic analysis terms, the NPV value will yield a negative value of $50.30 ($2,000 - $1,949.70). My friend is not actually paying me back the amount I would lend to her. She is paying me less than I actually would lend to her.
b. Cash Flow Diagram:
Year 1 Year 2
F1 F2
$1,000 $1,100 (Inflows)
Fo⇵.................⇵.......................⇵...........................⇵n period
Year 0
$2,000 (outflows)
Explanation:
The cash flow diagram for this loan is the graphical representation of the timing of the cash flows with a clear marking of the repayments made by my best friend in two instalments and the $2,000 that I lent to her. This cash flow diagram presents the flow of cash as arrows on a timeline scaled to the magnitude of the cash flow, where outflows are down arrows and inflows are up arrows.
The Net present value (NPV) of this loan shows the difference between the present value of repayments by my best friend and the present value of $2,000 that I lent to her over a period of 2 years. To obtain this difference, the present values of cash inflows of $1,000 in a year's time and $1,100 in two years' time are determined using the discount factor table based on the given interest rate of 5%.
Answer:
The correct answer for option (a) is $515,000 and for option (b) is $560,000.
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:
Earnings before depreciation and taxes = $620,000
Depreciation = $320,000
So, we can compute the cash flow by using following formula:
Cash Flow = EBIT × (1 - Tax Rate) + Depreciation
(a). For tax bracket = 35%
Here EBIT = EBITDA - Depreciation
= $620,000 - $320,000
= $300,000
Now by putting the value in the formula, we get:
Cash Flow = $300,000 × ( 1 - 35%) + $320,000
= $300,000 × 0.65 + $320,000
= $195,000 + $320,000
= $515,000
Hence, the cash flow is $515,000 for 35% tax bracket.
(b) For tax bracket = 20%
Here EBIT = EBITDA - Depreciation
= $620,000 - $320,000
= $300,000
Now by putting the value in the formula, we get:
Cash Flow = $300,000 × ( 1 - 20%) + $320,000
= $300,000 × 0.8 + $320,000
= $240,000 + $320,000
= $560,000
Hence, the cash flow is $560,000 for 20% tax bracket.