Answer:
The balance of Common Stock for Grayson Company is $8,300
Explanation:
For computing the common stock value, first we have to compute the ending retained earning balance which is shown below
= Beginning retained earning balance + revenues - expenses
= $3,300 + $10,100 - $7,550
= $5,850
Thus, the ending balance is $5,850
Now by applying the accounting equation we can compute the common stock value
Accounting equation is equals to
Assets = Liabilities + Equity
where,
Assets = Cash + Accounts receivable + Land
= $5,000 + $2,100 + $8,600
= $15,700
Liabilities = Accounts payable = $1,550
And, Equity = Ending Retained earnings balance + common stock
= $5,850 + common stock
Now, apply the above accounting equation which is shown below:
$15,700 = $1,550 + $5,850 + common stock
$15,700 = $7,400 + common stock
So, common stock = $8,300
Hence, the balance of Common Stock for Grayson Company is $8,300
If this is on Odyssey then its Helping
Answer:
PV= $2,106.18
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Annual payment= $500
Number of periods= 5 years
Interest rate= 6%
To calculate the present value, first, we need to determine the future value:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual payment
FV= {500*[(1.06^5) - 1]} / 0.06
FV= $2,818.55
Now, the present value:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 2,818.55/1.06^5
PV= $2,106.18
The present value of a $500 payment received at the end of each of the next five years at an appropriate discount rate of 6 percent is approximately $2,106.
The question you asked involves the concept of calculating the present value of a series of future payments, also known as an annuity. The present value of an annuity can be determined using the formula:
PV = PMT * [(1 - (1 + r)^-n)/r]
where 'PV' is the present value, 'PMT' is the periodic payment, 'r' is the discount rate (as a decimal), and 'n' is the number of periods.
Plugging in the values from your question we get:
PV = 500 * [(1 - (1 + 0.06)^-5) /0.06]
This will give us the present value of the cash flows. Thus, the present value for a $500 payment received at the end of each of the next five years, worth to you today at the appropriate discount rate of 6 percent is $2,106.
#SPJ3
Answer:
Debit Supplies expense $9200
Credit Supplies account $9200
Explanation:
The adjustment required is for the recognition of supplies used. When supplies are purchased, Debit Supplies account, credit cash or accounts payable. On use of supplies, Debit Supplies expense, credit Supplies account
The movement in the balance of supplies at the start and end of a period is as a result of usage and purchases. While usage reduces the balance in supplies, purchases increases the balance. This may be expressed mathematically as
Opening balance + purchases - units used = closing balance
$2,700 + $9,600 - Units used = $3,100
Units used = $2,700 + $9,600 - $3,100
= $9,200
b) $600,000
c) $54,000
d) $126,000
Answer:
b) $600,000
Explanation:
The break-even sales can be regarded as sales value in which the result makes the firm to report zero profit.
Total fixed costs was given from the question as ( $180,000)
The Contribution margin ratio was give from the question as ( 30%)= 0.3
✓break even point can be calculated as ratio of Total fixed costs to Contribution margin ratio. This can be expressed as
break even point=[Total fixed costs ]/ [ Contribution margin ratio.]
Substitute,
break even point= [ $180,000]/ [0.3]
=$600,000
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Given a certain production level, cost minimization is equal to product maximization. Cost minimization refers to the production level where average total cost per unit is lowest. On the other hand, production maximization refers to maximizing product output given certain restraints, e.g. amount of raw materials, number of labor hours, etc. Product maximization basically refers to the efficiency of production.
If someone can achieve product maximization and cost minimization, they should be maximizing profit.
Answer:
$32,900 favorable
Explanation:
The computation of the total flexible budget variable overhead cost variance is shown below:
= Total budgeted overhead cost - actual budgeted overhead cost
where,
Total budgeted overhead cost is
= $9.40 × 74,900 hours
= $704,060
And, the actual budgeted overhead cost is
= $8.40 × 79,900 hours
= $671,160
So, the total flexible budget variable overhead cost variance is
= $704,060 - $671,160
= $32,900 favorable
Since the standard cost is greater than the actual cost so it would have favorable variance