Answer:
-$3
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Cost of raffle ticket = $5
Number of tickets sold = 2000
Probability of winning = 1 ÷ 2000 = 0.0005
Winning prize = $4,000
Now,
The expected value of prize = Probability of winning × Winning prize
= 0.0005 × $4,000
= $2
Therefore,
The expected value for this raffle
= expected value prize - Cost of raffle ticket
= $2 - $5
= -$3
Answer:
Explanation:
The journal entry is shown below:
Cash A/c Dr $3,700
To Treasury Stock A/c $3,500
To Additional Paid in Capital A/c $200
(Being the reissued shares are recorded)
The computation is shown below:
For cash account:
= 100 shares × $37 per share
= $3,700
For Treasury Stock Account
= 100 shares × $35 per share
= $3,500
And, for Additional Paid in Capital Account
= $3,700 - $3,500
= $200
For reissued shares, we debited the cash account and credited the treasury stock and Additional Paid-in Capital account
(B) cause
(C) place
(D) organization
Answer:
The correct answer is (A) event
Explanation:
Event marketing is a strategy that consists of giving memorable experiences to the consumers of a brand, in order to last in their memory. This type of activity aims to identify the brand and connect with it.
Thanks to these events, the company increases its brand recognition, improves the image, establishes strong relationships with customers, employees and suppliers.
Answer:
The depreciation expense for Year 1 is $9880
Explanation:
The cost of equipment to be recorded in the books is the price at which it was purchased and the cost incurred to bring it to intended use that is the installation cost. Thus, the cost of the equipment in the books will be recorded as,
Equipment = 88000 + 4000 = $84000
The insurance and maintenance are recurring expenses and are not capitalized.
The depreciation rate under units of production method is,
Depreciation rate = (cost - salvage value) / estimated useful life in units
Depreciation rate = (84000 - 8000) / 100000 = $0.76 per unit
The depreciation expense for Year 1 = 0.76 * 13000 = $9880
Answer:
$10,920
Explanation:
Cost of equipment = List price of equipment + Cost of installation and testing
$88,000 + $4,000 = $92,000
Salvage value = $8,000
Depreciation cost of equipment = Cost of equipment - salvage value
$92,000 - $8,000 = $84,000
Estimated unit of production = 100,000 units
Year 1 units produced = 13,000 units
Depreciation = $84,000 * 13,000 / 100,000
= $10,920
Answer: 125%
Explanation:
Manufacturing overhead = Predetermined overhead rate * Direct labor
Manufacturing Overhead
= Work in process balance - Direct labor - Direct materials
= 3,960 - 640 - 440 - 540 - 740
= $1,600
The rationale behind the above is that that the Work in process account is made up of Direct labor, material and overhead. The Overhead would therefore be the balance less the Direct material and labor.
Direct Labor = 540 + 740
= $1,280
Manufacturing overhead = Predetermined overhead rate * Direct labor
1,600 = Predetermined overhead rate * 1,280
Predetermined overhead rate = 1,600/1,280
= 1.25
= 125%
Answer:
Payroll = $95,000,
Indirect labor = $25000
Direct labor paid = $95000 - $25000 = $70000
∵ predetermined overhead application rate is 170 % of direct labor cost
Overhead applied to work in process = 70000 × 170 %
= $119,000
Journal entry:
Debit ⇒ Work in process = $1190000
Credit ⇒ Factory Overheads = $119000
To record the application of factory overhead to production, you first calculate the direct labor cost, then multiply by the predetermined overhead rate. The journal entry is a debit to Work in Process and a credit to Factory Overhead for this calculated amount.
The Portside Watercraft company is using a job order costing system and a predetermined overhead rate based on direct labor cost. In this case, to record the application of factory overhead to production, you would first calculate the factory overhead applied by multiplying the direct labor cost (total labor cost minus indirect labor cost) by the predetermined rate.
The direct labor cost would be calculated by subtraction: $95,000 (total factory payroll) - $25,000 (indirect labor) = $70,000. Then multiply $70,000 by 170% (the predetermined overhead rate) to get $119,000. The journal entry would then be a debit to Work in Process for $119,000 and a credit to Factory Overhead for $119,000.
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