Answer:
You can import QuickBooks Online Trial Balance data into ProConnect Tax Online to prepare tax returns via the client dashboard
You can start a new tax return from the client dashboard for non QuickBooks Online clients or clients that are using QuickBooks Online
Explanation:
While using the client details and the dash borad screens of an online accountant who are working with the client files should do the importing of the data related to the trial balance into the proconnect tax so that the tax returns could be prepared
Also the new tax return could be started from the client dashboard via using the quick books online
hence, these two statements are correct
Answer:
$23, 472
Explanation:
The question is to calculate how much Derek is willing to pay for the machine.
What the money Machine will pay in 5 years = $43, 245.00
The Discount rate= 13%
The number of years = 5 Years
Therefore, Present value of the machines:
PV= P x [1/(1+r)∧n]; P= Future benefit; r = rate and n = number of years
The calculation is as follows
Answer:
Contribution margin= $225,000
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Sales $ 1,000,000
Cost of goods sold 665,000
On average, a book sells for $50.
Variable selling expenses are $4 per book
The variable administrative expenses are 3% of sales
First, we need to calculate the number of units sold:
Units sold= 1,000,000/50= 20,000 units
Now, the total contribution margin:
Sales= 1,000,000
Cost of goods sold= (665,000)
Variable selling expenses= 4*20,000= (80,000)
Variable administrative expenses= (1,000,000*0.03)= 30,000
Contribution margin= $225,000
Production 30,000 units 24,000 units
Machine-hours 15,000 hours 10,800 hours
Variable overhead cost per machine-hour: $12.00 $11.25
What is the variable overhead efficiency variance?
a. 51890 favorable
b. $34,830 unfavorable
c. $36.720 unfavorable
e. 512.240 unfavorable
Answer:
Variable overhead efficiency variance= $14,400 favorable
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Budgeted Actual
Production 30,000 units 24,000 units
Machine-hours 15,000 hours 10,800 hours
Variable overhead cost per machine-hour: $12.00 $11.25
To calculate the variable overhead efficiency variance, we need to use the following formula:
Variable overhead efficiency variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*Standard rate
Variable overhead efficiency variance= (12,000 - 10,800)*12
Variable overhead efficiency variance= $14,400 favorable
Answer:
Process flexibility.
Explanation:
The ease with which resources can be adjusted in response to changes in demand, technology, products and services, and resource availability is known as process flexibility.
Process flexibility simply refers to the ability of a firm or company to respond to changes in the production line or manufacturing process of goods to meet the needs of their customers.
For instance, when there is a new technology in the industry, the ability of a company to switch with ease is its process flexibility.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
I believe it's true. If we have a job opening for sales personnel and candidate is physically unable to walk or drive, then yes we can exclude that candidate. But once hiring manager is sure of the fact that disability will render that candidate unable to work then manager can preclude that candidate.
Answer:
a. $49,933,333.33 million
b. $48,533,333.33 million
Explanation:
The computations are presented below:
a. For current profits as dividends in before case
= Profits × (1 + opportunity cost) ÷ (opportunity cost - growth rate)
= $1,400,000 × (1 + 0.07) ÷ (0.07 - 0.04)
= $1,400,000 × 35.6666
= $49,933,333.33 million
b. For current profits as dividends in after case
= Profits × (1 + growth rate) ÷ (opportunity cost - growth rate)
= $1,400,000 × (1 + 0.04) ÷ (0.07 - 0.04)
= $1,400,000 × 34.6666
= $48,533,333.33 million
Using the Gordon growth model, the value of the firm before dividend payouts is calculated to be $49,933,333.33. However, instantly after the dividend payouts, the firm's value becomes zero.
The value of the firm can be determined using the Gordon growth model, which is used to determine the value of a firm or stock that pays dividends that are expected to grow at a constant rate. In such a scenario, the firm's value is equal to the dividends of the next period (D1) divided by the required rate of return minus the growth rate of dividends.
Part A: The firm's value, before the payouts, can be calculated as:
Value = D0 * (1+g) / (k-g) = $1,400,000 * (1+0.04) / (0.07-0.04) = $49,933,333.33
Part B: The firm's value, after payouts, assumes that the firm's capital has come back to the company and will start accumulating again once the next cycle begins. Thus the firm's value would become zero.
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