Answer:
1) In general, is it a good idea to make only minimum payments on your credit cards?
All you have to do is analyze the interest rates charged by the credit card companies and it is really difficult for any investment to match those interest rates.
2) Assuming you have $1,500 in your budget this month with which to pay down your credit cards, how much should you pay on each card?
I would start with the cards that charge the highest interest rates. I would pay the full balance of the department store card and the gasoline card = $600 + $300 = $900
Since I have $600 left, I would then pay the minimum payments for the cards that charge the least interest rates. I would pay $40 to Discover card and $60 to VISA.
The remaining $500 would be used to pay MasterCard 1 card and lower its balance.
It's not best practice to only make minimum payments on credit cards, as it results in long-term debt due to the compounding of interest. Prioritize your $1,500 payment towards cards with higher interest rates first and consider using the balance transfer offer on MasterCard 2 judiciously.
This question pertains to managing credit cards and consumer loans. In this specific scenario, it's generally not a good idea to only make minimum payments on credit cards. Only making minimum payments could keep you in debt for many years due to the compounding effect of interest.
To prioritize debt repayment with an available budget of $1,500 to pay down on credit cards this month, you should start by paying off the credit card with the highest interest rate first. This strategy is known as the avalanche method. So, you would begin with the Department store card (28% interest rate) and gasoline card (21% interest rate), and then move on to MasterCard 1 (14% interest rate), VISA card (13% interest rate), and Discover Card (12% interest rate).
The balance transfer offer from MasterCard 2 could be beneficial. As it offers a 0% APR for 12 months, you could transfer some of the balance from the cards with high interest rates to MasterCard 2. However, this should only be done if you are confident that you can pay off the transferred balance within the promotional period of 12 months, as otherwise, interest would revert to the regular rate.
#SPJ12
travel distances
insurance claims
a company's competitors
fraud
A-D
-financial records
-a company’s competitors
Answer:
Financial Records
A Company’s Competitors
Explanation:
I got it right on edge 2020 hope this helps!
Answer:
Current intrinsic value - equity = $1155.56
Explanation:
FCFE or Free cashflow to equity is the free cash flow attributable to the equity holders. Using the constant growth model of FCFE we can calculate the intrinsic value of the equity or intrinsic value per share. The formula for the constant growth model is as follows,
Value of equity = FCFE0 * (1+g) / (r - g)
Where,
Current intrinsic value - equity = 100 * (1+0.04) / (0.13 - 0.04)
Current intrinsic value - equity = $1155.56
(b) Heating and air conditioning the clinic.
(c) Sending blood work to a lab.
(d) Dispensing medicine.
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Heating and air conditioning the clinic is a facility level activity.
B. Dispensing medicine is a facility level activity.
C. Cleaning cages is a facility level activity.
D. Sending blood work to a lab is a facility level activity.
E. Service entities cannot use ABC for overhead allocation.
Answer:
E. Service entities cannot use ABC for overhead allocation.
Explanation:
ABC costing is limited to use when the cost can be directly traced to a certain activity. All of the Activities are volume driven and overheads would be incurred in small proportion to the overall cost.
Answer:
Accounts receivable turn over is 16.64
Explanation:
To compute accounts receivable turn over ratio, we simply divide net credit sales over the average accounts receivable.
Accounts receivable turn over ratio = $1,240,000/$74,500
= 16.64
The higher the ratio, the better it is in the company. It simply means, the company exercises the effective way to collect its receivable from the customer.
*Net credit sales is derived by deducting sales returns and allowances from gross credit sales. If the problem is silent regarding cash sales, we will assume that the sales made by the period is all at credit.
Answer:
EPS = $ 2.00
Explanation:
Earning per share: EBIT/outstanding shares
unlevered firm EPS:
oustanding shares: 10,000
Levered firm EPS:
(EBIT - interest)/outstanding shares
where:
Interest_ 50,000 x 5% = 5,000
Shares repurchase: 50,000 / 20 = 2,500
Outstanding shares: 10,000 - 2,500 = 7,500
EBIT/10,000 = (EBIT-5,000)/7,500
(0.75)EBIT = EBIT - 5,000
5,000 / (1-0.75) = EBIT
EBIT = 20,000
EPS: 20,000 / 10,000 = 2.00