A speed skater moving across frictionless ice at 8.8 m/s hits a 6.0 m -wide patch of rough ice. Her acceleration on the rough ice is -3.65 m/s².
v² - u² = 2 a ∆x, where u and v are initial and final velocities, respectively; a is acceleration.
and ∆x is the distance traveled (because the skater moves in only one direction).
Thus, (5.8 m/s)² - (8.8 m/s)² = 2 a (6.0 m)
a = ((5.8 m/s)² - (8.8 m/s)²) / (12 m)
a = -3.65 m/s².
Thus, A speed skater moving across frictionless ice at 8.8 m/s hits a 6.0 m -wide patch of rough ice. Her acceleration on the rough ice is -3.65 m/s².
Learn more about Acceleration, refer to the link:
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Recall that
v² - u² = 2 a ∆x
where u and v are initial and final velocities, respectively; a is acceleration; and ∆x is the distance traveled (because the skater moves in only one direction).
So we have
(5.8 m/s)² - (8.8 m/s)² = 2 a (6.0 m)
a = ((5.8 m/s)² - (8.8 m/s)²) / (12 m)
a = -3.65 m/s²
Answer:
The confidence interval for the mean is given by the following formula:
(1)
Since the Confidence is 0.95 or 95%, the value of and , and we can use excel, a calculator or a table to find the critical value. The excel command would be: "=-NORM.INV(0.025,0,1)".And we see that
The standard error for this case is given:
Now we have everything in order to replace into formula (1):
Explanation:
Previous concepts
A confidence interval is "a range of values that’s likely to include a population value with a certain degree of confidence. It is often expressed a % whereby a population means lies between an upper and lower interval".
The margin of error is the range of values below and above the sample statistic in a confidence interval.
Normal distribution, is a "probability distribution that is symmetric about the mean, showing that data near the mean are more frequent in occurrence than data far from the mean".
represent the sample mean for the sample
population mean (variable of interest)
s represent the sample standard deviation
n represent the sample size
Calculate the confidence interval
The confidence interval for the mean is given by the following formula:
(1)
Since the Confidence is 0.95 or 95%, the value of and , and we can use excel, a calculator or a table to find the critical value. The excel command would be: "=-NORM.INV(0.025,0,1)".And we see that
The standard error for this case is given:
Now we have everything in order to replace into formula (1):
Answer:
her initial frequency is 445 Hz
Explanation:
Given;
initial beat frequency, = 5
observed frequency, F = 440 Hz
let the initial frequency = F₁
F₁ = F ± 5 Hz
F₁ = 440 Hz ± 5 Hz
F₁ = 435 or 445 Hz
This result obtained shows that her initial frequency can either be 435 Hz or 445 Hz
The last beat frequency will be used to determine the actual initial frequency.
F = v/λ
Frequency (F) is inversely proportional to wavelength. That is an increase in length will cause a proportional decrease in frequency.
This shows that the final frequency is smaller than the initial frequency because of the increase in length.
Initial frequency - frequency of tuning fork = 5 beat frequency
Reduced initial frequency - frequency of tuning fork = 3 beat frequency
Initial frequency = 5Hz + 440 Hz = 445 Hz
Final frequency (Reduced initial frequency) = 440 + 3 = 443 Hz
Check: 445 Hz - 440 Hz = 5 Hz
443 Hz - 440 Hz = 3 Hz
Answer:
speed when it reaches y = 4.00cm is
v = 14.9 g.m/s
Explanation:
given
q₁=q₂ =2.00 ×10⁻⁶
distance along x = 3.00cm= 3×10⁻²
q₃= 4×10⁻⁶C
mass= 10×10 ⁻³g
distance along y = 4×10⁻²m
r₁ = = = 3.61cm = 0.036m
r₂ = = = 5cm = 0.05m
electric potential V =
change in potential ΔV =
ΔV = , where 2.00μC
ΔV =
ΔV = 2 × 9×10⁹ × 2×10⁻⁶ ×
ΔV= 2.789×10⁵
= ΔV × q₃
ˣ 10×10⁻³ ×v² = 2.789×10⁵× 4 ×10⁻⁶
v² = 223.12 g.m/s
v = 14.9 g.m/s
The speed of the charge q₃ when it starts from rest at y = 2 cm and reaches y = 4 cm is; v = 14.89 m/s
We are given;
Charge 1; q₁ = 2.00 μC = 2 × 10⁻⁶ C
Charge 2; q₂ = 2.00 μC = 2 × 10⁻⁶ C
Distance of charge 1 along x = 3 cm = 3 × 10⁻² m
Distance of charge 2 along x = -3 cm = -3 × 10⁻² m
Charge 3; q₃ = +4.00 μC = 4 × 10⁻⁶ C
mass; m = 0.01 g
distance of charge 3 along y = 4 cm = 4 × 10⁻² m
q₃ starts from rest at y = 2 × 10⁻² m and reaches y = 4 × 10⁻² m.
Thus;
Distance of charge 1 from the initial position of q₃;
r₁ = √((3 × 10⁻²)² + ((2 × 10⁻²)²)
r₁ = 0.0361 m
Distance of charge 2 from the final position of q₃;
r₂ = √((3 × 10⁻²)² + ((4 × 10⁻²)²)
r₂ = 0.05 m
Now, formula for electric potential is;
V = kq/r
Where k = 9 × 10⁹ N.m²/s²
Thus,change in potential is;
ΔV = V₁ - V₂
Now, Net V₁ = 2kq₁/r₁
Net V₂ = 2kq₂/r₂
Thus;
ΔV = 2kq₁/r₁ - 2kq₂/r₂
ΔV = (2 × 9 × 10⁹)[(2 × 10⁻⁶/0.0361) - (2 × 10⁻⁶/0.05)]
ΔV = 277229.92 V
Now, from conservation of energy;
½mv² = q₃ΔV
Thus;
½ × 0.01 × v² = 4 × 10⁻⁶ × 277229.92
v² = 2 × 4 × 10⁻⁶ × 277229.92/0.01
v = √(221.783936)
v = 14.89 m/s
Read more about point charges at;brainly.com/question/13914561
Answer:
14.7 psi is equal to 19051.2 pounds per square yard.
Explanation:
Dimensionally speaking, a square yard equals 1296 square inches. Therefore, we need to multiply the atmospheric pressure by 1296 to obtain its equivalent in pounds per square yard. That is:
14.7 psi is equal to 19051.2 pounds per square yard.
Answer:
The volume flow rate is 3.27m³/s
Diameter at the refinery is 88.64cm
Explanation:
Given
At the wellhead
Pipes diameter, d2 = 59.1cm = 0.591m
Flow speed of petroleum f2 = 11.9m/s
At the refinery,
Pipes diameter, d1 = ? Unknown
Flow speed of petroleum, f1 = 5.29m/s
Calculating the volume flow rate of petroleum along the pipe.
Volume flow rate = Flow rate * Area along the pipe
V = 11.9 * πd²/4
V = 11.9 * 22/7 * 0.591²/4
V = 3.265778m³/s
The volume flow rate is 3.27m³/s -------- Approximated
Since it's not stated if the flowrate is uniform throughout the pipe, we'll assume that flow rate is the same through out...
Using V1A1 = V2A2, where V1 & V2 Volume flow rate at both ends and area = Area of pipes at both ends
This gives;
V1A1 = V1A2
V1*πd1²/4 = V2 * πd2²/4 ----------- Divide through by π/4
So, we are left with
V1d1² = V2d2²
5.29 * d1²= 11.9 * 59.1²
d1² = 11.9 * 59.1²/5.29
d1² = 7857.172
d1 = √7857.172
d1 = 88.6406904305240618
d1 = 88.64cm --------------- Approximated
Answer:
The direction is due south
Explanation:
From the question we are told that
The energy of the electron is
The earths magnetic field is
Generally the force on the electron is perpendicular to the velocity of the elecrton and the magnetic field and this is mathematically reresented as
On the first uploaded image is an illustration of the movement of the electron
Looking at the diagram we can see that in terms of direction the magnetic force is
generally i cross k = -j
so the equation above becomes
This show that the direction is towards the south