The descriptionof the dual effects of the transactions on the accounting equation is as follows:
1. Asset increases (Accounts Receivable) and stockholders' equity (Retained Earnings) increases.
2. One asset (Equipment) increases and another asset (Cash) decreases.
3. Assets (Supplies) increase and liabilities (Accounts Payable) increase.
4. Assets (Cash) decrease and stockholders' equity (Retained Earnings) decreases.
5. Assets (Cash) decrease and stockholders' equity (Retained Earnings) decreases.
6. Assets (Cash) decrease and stockholders' equity (Retained Earnings) decreases.
7. One asset (Cash) increases and another asset (Accounts Receivable) decreases.
8. Assets (Cash) increase and liabilities (Deferred Revenue) increase.
The accounting equation is a depiction that assets equal liabilities and equity at every given time and with every transaction. This equation gives each transaction the dual effect.
1. Accounts Receivable $15,000 Service Revenue $15,000
2. Equipment $16,000 Cash $16,000
3. Supplies $2,500 Accounts Payable $2,500
4. Salaries Expense $3,200 Cash $3,200
5. Advertising Expense $1,200 Cash $3,200
6. Rent Expense $4,400 Cash $4,400
7. Cash $10,000 Accounts Receivable $10,000
8. Cash $5,000 Deferred Revenue $5,000
Thus, the dual effect means that each transaction affects, at least, two accounts of the accounting equation.
Learn more about the dual effects of accounting transactions at brainly.com/question/2707498
Answer:
D. It will increase by 667 units.
Explanation:
The calculation of break-even point is shown below:-
Contribution Per Unit (before increase in Variable Cost) = Unit sale price - Unit Variable Cost
= $55 - $30
= $25
Break-Even (Units) = Fixed Cost ÷ Division Contribution per unit
= $25,000 ÷ $25
= 1,000
New Variable Cost per unit = $30 + $10 (Increase in Direct material cost) = $40
Selling Price = $55
New Contribution per unit = $55 - $40 = $15
New Break-Even (Units) = Fixed Cost ÷ New Contribution per unit
= $25,000 ÷ $15
= 1,667
Increase in Break-Even Units(after increase in D.M cost) = New Break even point - Old Break even point
= 1,667 - 1,000 units
= 667 units
Therefore, The Break even points units will increase by 667 units, if the D.M cost increases by $10 per unit.
Answer:
Ending Inventory:21,267.70
Explanation:
cost retail
beginning 12,700 20,900
purchases 113,930 158,500
markups 9,600
markdowns (7,400)
total 126,630 181,600
inventory to retail ratio: 126,630 / 181,600 = 0.6973
sales revenues 151,100
COGS: 151,100 x 0.6973 = 105,362.30
Ending Inventory: 126,630 - 105,362.30 = 21,267.70
b. This type of risk is inherent in a firmâs operations. A standard measure of the risk per unit of return. This can be used to reduce the stand-alone risk of an investment by combining it with other investments in a portfolio.
c. A standard measure of the risk per unit of return
d. This type of risk relates to fluctuations in exchange rates
Answer:
Foreign exchange risk
Explanation:
These are the risks that an international financial transaction could accrue because of fluctuations in the currency.
A standard measure of the risk per unit of return and this type of risk relates to fluctuations in exchange rates.
Therefore, according to the following descriptions, the type of risk or term being described is Foreign exchange risk.
Answer:
d. Lack of complexity: This refers to an oversimplication of policies that sacrifices depth and nuance.
Explanation:
Projects dedicated to information security policy are improved by lack of complexity . When the process for project execution is simplified, it is easy to understand and execute the various project stages, making processes more efficient. Simplification is a valuable tool businesses are using more and more to reduce wastage and increase returns.
On the other hand complexity in a project makes it hard to understand, and easier to make time-wasting mistakes.
Cash: $50,000 $60,000
Accounts receivable: 112,000 108,000
Inventories: 105,000 93,000
Prepaid expenses: 4,500 6,500
Accounts payable-
(merchandise creditors): 75,000 89,000
What is the amount of cash flows, from operating activities, reported on the statement of cash flows, prepared by the indirect method?
Answer:
The amount of cash flows, from operating activities, reported on the statement of cash flows, prepared by the indirect method is $268,702
Explanation:
The Net Income for the year is adjusted for non-cash items, items appearing elsewhere and items in movement of working capital to arrive at the net cash flow from operating activities using the indirect method.
Cash flows, from operating activities
Net income $250,771
adjusted for non-cash items
Depreciation $35,093
Amortization $10,838
adjusted for items in movement of working capital
Increase in Accounts receivable ($4,000)
Increase in Inventories ($12,000)
Decrease in Prepaid expenses $2,000
Decrease in Accounts payable (14,000)
Net Cash flows, from operating activities $268,702
Answer:
$78,443.29
Explanation:
we need to use the present value of an annuity formula:
the formula used to determine the present value factor of an annuity is:
present value annuity factor = [1 - 1/(1 + i)ⁿ ] / i
we must divide this into 2 parts:
the first part will deal with the $2,000 monthly payment
the second part deals with the $1,000 monthly payment
i = 9.75% / 12 = 0.8125%
n (first part) = 36
n (second part) = 24
the PV annuity factor for first part = [1 - 1/(1 + 0.8125%)³⁶ ] / 0.8125% = 31.1043
the PV annuity factor for first part = [1 - 1/(1 + 0.8125%)²⁴ ] / 0.8125% = 21.7251
loan = ($2,000 x 31.1043) + ($1,000 x 21.7251)//(1 + 0.8125%)³⁶ = $62,208.60 + $16,234.69 = $78,443.29
= [1 - 1/(1 + 0.0069942)240 ] / 0.0069942 = 116.135183
The bank would calculate the present value of the loan payments to determine how much to lend the small business owner.
The bank would be willing to lend the business owner an amount that corresponds to the present value of the loan payments. To calculate the present value, we need to discount each of the future cash flows to the present time using the bank's annual percentage rate (APR). The formula to calculate the present value of an annuity is:
Present Value = A x [(1 - (1 + r) ^ -n) / r]
Where A is the monthly payment, r is the monthly interest rate, and n is the number of months.
Using this formula, we can calculate the present value of the loan payments and determine how much the bank would be willing to lend the business owner.
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