Answer:
Amount of interest = $ 300
Explanation:
Given:
Total number of month = 3 months (Oct, Nov and Dec)
Amount borrow = $20,000
Interest rate = 6%
Find:
Amount of interest
Computation:
Amount of interest = $20,000 x 6% x 3 months / 12 months
Amount of interest = $ 300
Answer:
it cannot be used to settle debts
Explanation:
The assets are said to be liquid when it is convertible into cash and the liquid asset we called as a current asset. The liquidity of an asset is important to pay off the short term debt or obligations arise.
It can be in terms of account payable, inventory, prepaid insurance, etc
The asset that said to be illiquid when it is not be used for settling the debts
Hence, the first option is correct
Answer:
The slope for the relationship between the price and the quantity of ice cream sold would be of -1/15
Explanation:
In order to calculate the slope for the relationship between the price and the quantity of ice cream sold we would have to calculate the following formula:
Slope= change in yaxis( vertical)/change in xaxis(horizontal)
Slope= change in price/change in quantity demand
Slope=P2-P1/Q2-Q1
Slope=3-4/35-20
Slope=-1/15
The slope for the relationship between the price and the quantity of ice cream sold would be of -1/15
At the time the mortgage is obtained, approximately $850,000 of the $900,000 would be classified as a long-term liability.
In the first year, the company pays $20,000 of the principal. In the second year, it pays $30,000 of the principal. This means that by the end of the second year, the company has paid a total of $20,000 + $30,000 = $50,000 of the principal.
Now, the remaining principal balance is $900,000 - $50,000 = $850,000.
Since the company will pay the remainder of the principal evenly over the final 28 years, you can calculate the annual principal payment for the remaining term:
$850,000 / 28 years = $30,357.14 per year (rounded to the nearest cent).
At the time the mortgage payable is obtained, the long-term liability portion of the mortgage is the total principal amount to be paid after the first two years. Therefore, it is:
$20,000 (Year 1 principal payment) + $30,000 (Year 2 principal payment) + ($30,357.14 x 28) ≈ $850,000.
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The amount of the $900,000 mortgage payable classified as a long-term liability is $870,000.
To determine the amount of the $900,000 mortgage payable that would be classified as a long-term liability at the time the mortgage is obtained, we need to calculate the portion of the principal that will be paid over the first year, second year, and the remaining 28 years.
Therefore, the amount of the $900,000 mortgage payable that would be classified as a long-term liability at the time of obtaining the mortgage is the sum of the principal payments in the first year and the remaining principal payment over the final 28 years: $20,000 + $850,000 = $870,000.
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Answer: b. A study of the situation
Explanation: The problem-based ideation process is characterized by a workflow that begins with the study of a situation, to use of various techniques of problem identification, to screening of the resulting problems, and ends in development of concept statements for final evaluation. The aim is to generate a large quantity of ideas that can then filtered through and the best, most practical or most innovative solutions are selected.
a. Compute the cash payback period. (Round answer to 1 decimal place, e.g. 10.5.)
b. Compute the annual rate of return on the proposed capital expenditure. (Round answer to 2 decimal places, e.g. 10.52%)
c. Using the discounted cash flow technique, compute the net present value.
Answer:
Payback period = 3.6 years
Annual rate of return = 11.50%
NPV = 243.59
Explanation:
The payback period: The estimated number of years it will take the initial cost to be recouped.
Payback period= initial cost/ Net cash inflow
= 183,600/51,000
= 3.6 years
Annual rate of return is the average annual income as a percentage of average investment
Annual rate of return = annual net income/ average investment
Average investment =( Initial,cost + scrap value)/2
= (183,600 + 0)/2 = 91,800
Annual rate of return = (10,557/91,800)× 100
= 11.50%
Net Present Value = The present value of cash inflow less the initial cost
PV of cash inflow = A × (1- (1+r)^(-n))/r
= 51,000 × (1- (1.12)^(-5)/0.12
= 183,843.59
NPV = 183,843.59 - 183,600
= 243.59
Answer: Incentives
Explanation:
Incentive Fees which can also be known as Performance Fees are an ADDITIONAL form.of compensation that are tied to an Employee's salary based on their level of performance or more specifically, their level of Financial return.
They can be calculated in various ways but the main goal is to encourage the employee to keep up the good work.
Endrik received the Incentive of a large bonus check for Exceeding the Sales expectations of the company. This will spur him to keep up the good work.