Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
a. Earning per share
= (Net income - preferred dividend) ÷ (Weighted average number of outstanding shares)
= ($173,600 - $6,500) ÷ (27,200 shares + 38,600 shares) ÷ 2
= $167,100 ÷ 32,900 shares
= $5.08 per share
b. Price earnings ratio = Market price ÷ Earning per share
= $15 / $5.08
= 2.95
c. Payout ratio = Dividend paid ÷ Net income
= ($21,700 - $6,500) ÷ ($173,600)
= 8.76%
Answer:
PV= $2,106.18
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Annual payment= $500
Number of periods= 5 years
Interest rate= 6%
To calculate the present value, first, we need to determine the future value:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual payment
FV= {500*[(1.06^5) - 1]} / 0.06
FV= $2,818.55
Now, the present value:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 2,818.55/1.06^5
PV= $2,106.18
The present value of a $500 payment received at the end of each of the next five years at an appropriate discount rate of 6 percent is approximately $2,106.
The question you asked involves the concept of calculating the present value of a series of future payments, also known as an annuity. The present value of an annuity can be determined using the formula:
PV = PMT * [(1 - (1 + r)^-n)/r]
where 'PV' is the present value, 'PMT' is the periodic payment, 'r' is the discount rate (as a decimal), and 'n' is the number of periods.
Plugging in the values from your question we get:
PV = 500 * [(1 - (1 + 0.06)^-5) /0.06]
This will give us the present value of the cash flows. Thus, the present value for a $500 payment received at the end of each of the next five years, worth to you today at the appropriate discount rate of 6 percent is $2,106.
#SPJ3
b.Meteor
c.Cash cow
d.Shiner
e.Top dog
Answer:
It is Star (B)
Explanation:
Option (a) True. Star is a product with high relative market share in a high growing market . This product is full of potential but require more investment and spending in the areas of advertising,innovation and market research in order to maintain its market leadership position. Hence, it might be cash neutral at this stage.
In the long-run, it will eventually turns to cash cow in the portfolio if we can sustain its position.
Option(b) Meteor. False. This does not exist in product portfolio matrix.
Option (c) Cash cow. False.
This product has a large relative market share in a stagnating (mature) market, profits and cash flows are expected to be high. Because of the lower growth rate, investments needed should also be low.
Hence, they typically generate cash in excess of the amount of cash needed to maintain the business and this ‘excess cash’ is supposed to be ‘milked’ from the Cash Cow for investments in other business units (Stars and Question Marks). Cash Cows ultimately bring balance and stability to a portfolio.
Option (d) Shiner. False .It does not exist
Option (e) Top dog. It is a product with low relative market share in a stagnant market.
Answer:
FINANCING LEASE.
trailer 600,000 debit
lease liability 479,825 credit
cash 120,175 credit
--to record Jan 1st entry--
interest expense 38,386 debit
lease liability 81,789 credit
cash 120,175 credit
--to record Dec 31st entry--
Explanation:
The lease is for more than half of the asset useful life. Also, it has a present value equal to the fair value of the trailer. Also, ownership is acquired at the end of the lease life.
To build the schedule we calculate the interest on the principal
then, we subtract that from the installment to get the principal amortization and solve for the remaining at year-end
we repeat this procedure during the life of the lease.
Jan 1st, 2021
the journal entries will recognize the lease liability, the cash from the first payment, and the trailers received
Dec 31st, 2021
Here we must recognize the interest expense as well as the decrease in the lease liability.
Answer:
The required rate of return is 12.13%
Explanation:
According to the DDM model, the formula for a price of a stock is
P=D1/R-G
D1= Year end dividend
P= Stock price
R= required rate of return
G= Growth rate of stock
SO we will input the values given to us in the question, in this formula.
145=11.80/(R-0.04)
145R - 5.8=11.80
145R= 17.6
R=17.6/145
R=0.121
R= 12.13%
Answer:
Income Smatement will increase by 27,000
Therefore to 13,000 net income from 15,000 net loss.
I would recommended.
Explanation:
We will calcualte the contribution per division and the opèrating income at division level. Then, we apply the common fixed cost and get the net income.
Increase of West division sales by 20%
350,000 x 20% = 70,000
70,000 x ( 1-40%) = 42,000 increase in contribution
less 15,000 adertizing cost: 27,000
Answer: (1) Divisional segmented margin East ($40,000) Central $80,000, West $35,000 (2) incremental profit $27,000 (b ) I would recommend the increased advertising because it would increase profit by $27,000
Explanation:
East. Central. West. Total
Sales 250,000. 400,000. 350,000. 1,000,000
Less:variable
Expenses 130,000. 120,000. 140,000. 390,000
---------------- ------------------ ------------------- -------------------
Contribution
Margin. 120,000. 280,000. 210,000. 610,000
Traceable fixed
Expenses. 160,000. 200,000. 175,000. 535,000
Divisional
Segmented margin (40,000) 80,000. 35,000. 75,000
Common fixed
Expenses not traceable to
Division. - - - 90,000
Net operating income (loss) - - - (15,000)
Working of common fixed expenses not traceable to division
Fixed Expenses - Total traceable fixed expenses
625,000 - 535,000 = 90,000
(2)
Incremental contribution (0.2 × 210,000) 42,000
Less : Fixed cost. 15,000
-----------------
Incremental profit. 27,000
-------------------
(b) I would recommend the increased advertising because it would increase profit by $27,000
Answer:
It waster $74,941.2 per year
Explanation:
The procedure is as follow:
1.- EOQ
D = annual demand 230 units x 12 month = 2,760
S= setup cost = ordering cost = 38
H= Holding Cost= 10% of unit cost 39.60
EOQ = 72.78028371 = 73
2.- Calculate Cost:
EOQ cost:
orders 2,760 / 73 = 37.80 = 38 order x $38 each = $1,444
holding cost: 73 x 39.6 = $2,890.8
Total: 1,444 + 2,890.8 = 4,334.8
Current Cost:
orders: 2,760 / 2,000 = 1.* = 2 order per year x $38 each = $76
holding cost: 2,000 x 39.6 = 79.200
Total 79,200 + 76 = 79,276
3.- Difference:
79,276 - 4,334.8 = 74,941.2