Answer:
$213,250
Explanation:
The calculation of cash inflow is shown below:-
Expected cash collections
For the month of June
Months Sales Percentage Expected collections
April $282,500 5% $14,125
May $213,750 30% $64,125
June $225,000 60% $135,000
Total collection in the month of June $213,250
Here we assume Sales for April$282,500, May $213,750 and June $225,000.
Please ignore the last value as it is not relevant to the question
Answer:
Income statement
Explanation:
Statement of change in equity: It records beginning balance of equity, ending balance of equity, net income or loss, dividend paid if any.
Balance sheet: It records the assets and the liabilities side of the balance sheet which equals to
Total assets = Total liabilities + Stockholder equity
Statement of cash flows: It records three types of activities:
1. Operating activities: It includes those transactions which affect the working capital, and it records transactions of cash receipts and cash payments.
2. Investing activities: It records those activities which include purchase and sale of the fixed assets
3. Financing activities: It records those activities which affect the long term liability and shareholder equity balance.
Income statement: It records all income and expenses of a particular period.
In the given question, the increase in assets records under the revenue part whereas if the asset decreases, it records under expenses part of the income statement.
2. Record the entry that shows Dextra sending the sales tax on this sale to the government on October 15.
3. Record the cost of Sept. 30th sales.
4. Record the entry that shows the remittance of the 5% tax on this sale to the state government on October 15.
5. Record the cash sales and 3% sales tax.
Answer:
1.
Sept - 30
DR Cash $6,300
CR Sales $6,000
CR Sales Tax $300
(To record Cash sales and Tax Payable)
Working
Sales Tax = 6,000 * 5%
= $300
2.
Oct - 15
DR Sales Tax Payable $300
CR Cash $300
(To record remittance of Sales Tax to the State Government)
3.
Sept - 30
DR Cost of Goods Sold $3,900
CR Merchandise Inventory $3,900
(To transfer inventory to Cost of Goods sold)
4. Repeat question for question 2.
5. Repeat question for question 1.
1. Dr. Cash $6300
Cr. Sales $6000
Cr. Sales tax $300
(Being the cash sales and tax payable recorded.)
2. Oct 15
Dr. Sales Tax Payable $300
Cr. Cash $300
(Being remittance of Sales Tax to the State Government is recorded)
Sept. 30
Dr. Cost of Goods Sold $3,900
Cr. Merchandise Inventory $3,900
(Being transfer of inventory to Cost of Goods sold is recorded)
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Answer:
For this calculation we need to use the Effective Annual Yield Formula.
EY = (1 + r/n)^n - 1
Where:
Plugging the amounts into the formula we obtain:
EY = (1 + 0.06/2)^2 - 1
EY = 0.062
EY = 6.2%
To obtain the effective semi-annual yield, we simply divide the effective annual yield by two:
= 0.062/2
=0.031
Effective semi-annual yield = 3.1%
In this case, we would not invest in the bond because the effective semi-annual yield does not reach the required 4%.
Explanation:
Prepare the journal entry to recognize the impairment.
Explanation:
The journal entries are as follows
On December 31,2017
Loss on impairment Dr $80,000
To Debt investment - available for sale $80,000
(Being the loss on impairment is recorded)
It is computed below:
= $800,000 - $720,000
= $80,000
On December 31, 2017
Fair value adjustment- available for sale Dr $80,000
To Unrealized holding gain or loss - equity $80,000
(Being the fair value adjustment is recorded)
Answer:
Dr Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $80,000
Cr Debt Investments 80,000
Explanation:
Impairment = Cost - Fair Value = 800,000 - 720,000 = 80,000
Companies should use the CECL model to record the impairment of debt investments similar to receivables.
In evaluating the securities, Hagar now determines that it is probable that it will not collect all amounts due. In this case, it records a debit to allowance for doubtful accounts. Hagar includes this amount in income and records the impairment as shown above.
Answer:
Part 1
under-applied overheads = $8,000
Part 2
Schedule of cost of goods manufactured for the year.
Opening Work in process $ 42,000
Add Direct Materials $393,000
Add Direct Labor $ 80,000
Add Applied Overheads $434,000
Less Ending Work In Process ( $ 72,000)
Cost of Goods Manufactured $877,000
Explanation:
The amount of underapplied or overapplied overhead cost for the year.
Applied Overheads = Predetermined overheads rate x Actual machine hours
= $20 x 21,700 machine-hours
= $434,000
Since,
actual manufacturing overhead costs = $ 426,000
and
applied manufacturing overhead = $434,000
then
under-applied overheads = $8,000 ($434,000 - $ 426,000)
Schedule of cost of goods manufactured for the year.
Opening Work in process $ 42,000
Add Direct Materials ($ 22 + $ 420 - $ 32 - $ 17) $393,000
Add Direct Labor $ 80,000
Add Applied Overheads $434,000
Less Ending Work In Process ( $ 72,000)
Cost of Goods Manufactured $877,000
Answer: $168,000
Explanation:
Cash balance at the end of the year = Cash Inflows - Cash outflows
Cash Outflows
= (Merchandise purchased - Account payables) + Salaries + Interest + Insurance
= (235,000 - 38,700) + 28,100 + 2,600 + 8,900
= $235,900
Cash Inflows
= (Sales - Accounts receivables) + Investment by partners + Amount borrowed
= (378,000 - 47,000) + 47,000 + 26,000
= $404,000
Cash Balance = $168,000
Note: The options are most probably for a similar question.