Answer:
The correct answer is letter "A": The convenience yield is always positive or zero.
Explanation:
The convenience yield reflects the premium of possessing an asset instead of one of its derivates or contracts. This situation arises in front of inverted markets, where holding the asset itself may bring more profits than purchasing a derivate of the same asset.
The convenience yield tends to be positive or zero because the prices of assets cannot fall below zero. In other words, they are not negative.
convenience yield is a benefit of owning a physical asset over a futures contract. The yield is typically positive or zero. In the context of investment and consumption assets, the yield assumptions may vary.
The question is focusing on the concept of convenience yield in finance and its relationship with investment and consumption assets. Convenience yield is the non-monetary advantage or benefit that a holder gets from owning a physical good or an asset over a futures contract on that asset. If you decide to hold an asset as opposed to a futures contract on the asset, it means because the net benefits – that is the benefits from holding the asset, minus the benefits of holding the contract – must be nonzero. Therefore, option A is correct: The convenience yield is always positive or zero.
Moreover, for an investment asset, which is purchased with the hope that it will generate income or appreciate in value, the convenience yield is generally assumed to be zero because holding it delivers no utility beyond the financial returns it provides. So option B is not always true. The convenience yield being negative for a consumption asset, an asset purchased for current use, is also unlikely (option C is incorrect). Such a negative value would suggest that owning the asset is somehow disadvantageous - which contradicts the reason for purchasing a consumption asset. Lastly, the convenience yield does not measure the average return earned on futures contracts, therefore option D is also incorrect.
#SPJ3
Revenue for fiscal 2015 (i.e., the year ended January 2, 2016) of $616,778.
Bad debt expense for fiscal 2015 of $0.
Required:
Compute the amount of cash collected from customers during fiscal 2015.
Answer:
iRobot
The amount of cash collected from customers during fiscal 2015 = $583,155.
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Allowance at January 2, 2016 = $33
Allowance at December 27, 2014 = $67
Accounts Receivable at January 2, 2016 = $104,679
Accounts Receivable at December 27, 2014 = $71,056
Revenue for 2015, year ended Jan 2, 2016 = $616,778
Bad debt expense for 2015 = $0
Computation of the Cash collected from customers during fiscal 2015:
Accounts Receivable
Dec. 27, 2014 Balance $71,056
2015 Revenue 616,778
Jan. 2, 2016 Balance (104,679)
2015 Cash $583,155
Answer:(a) $8,900
(b) -($4,200)
(c) -($13,100)
(d) -($13,100)
Explanation:
Given that,
Amount invested by shareholders = $230,000
Debt securities purchased for cash = $101,000
Received cash interest on securities = $8,900
unrealized holding loss on these securities = $13,100
(a) Net Income = $8,900(Cash interest received)
(b) Comprehensive Income = Net Income - unrealized holding loss
= $8,900 - $13,100
= -($4,200)
(c) Other Comprehensive Income = unrealized holding loss
= -($13,100)
(d) Accumulated other comprehensive income:
Ending Balance of other comprehensive income = Beginning Balance + During this year
= $0 + (-$13,100)
= -($13,100)
Answer:
$1,380
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Standard Direct materials cost = $8.65
Actual Direct materials cost = $8.05
Actual Direct materials = 2,300
Standard Direct materials = 1,040
Now,
The amount of direct materials price variance
= (Standard cost - Actual cost ) × Actual quantity
= ( $8.65 - $8.05 ) × 2,300
= 0.6 × 2,300
= $1,380
Answer:
This depends on the type of interest charged and the length of the loan. Generally speaking, floating loans should adjust semi-automatically to changes in interest rates. So any change affects them directly.
On the other hand, fixed rate loans, most mortgages and installment loans generally carry a fixed interest rate that doesn't depend on the market interest rate. Some mortgages (around 33% of total) are variable rate mortgages that are affected by changes in the market interest rate, but they adjust on a yearly basis.
Answer:
$9,236.71
Explanation:
The computation of the maturity value of the note is shown below:-
Interest Amount = ($9000 × 8%) × 120 ÷ 365
= $720 × 120 ÷ 365
= $236.71
So, the Maturity Value is
= Face value + Interest amount
= $9,000 + $236.71
= $9,236.71
Therefore for computing the maturity value we simply applied the above formula.
Answer:
Market risk premium = 9.2%
Explanation:
The market risk premium is the difference between the market returns and the t bill yield. To calculate the market risk premium of this duration we will need to subtract the average annual t bill yield from the average annual return on the standard and poor's 500 index.
14.8-5.6=9.2