Answer:
the 90% of confidence intervals for the average salary of a CFA charter holder
(1,63,775 , 1,80,000)
Step-by-step explanation:
Explanation:-
random sample of n = 49 recent charter holders
mean of sample (x⁻) = $172,000
standard deviation of sample( S) = $35,000
Level of significance α= 1.645
90% confidence interval
on calculation , we get
(1,63,775 , 1,80,000)
The mean value lies between the 90% of confidence intervals
(1,63,775 , 1,80,000)
Answer:
3x-3 I think that's it.
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
The vertex is (1, -4)
Step-by-step explanation:
1,200 less-than 100 s
1,200 s greater-than 100
1,200 s less-than 100
Answer:
1,200 greater-than 100 s
Step-by-step explanation:
Each swimmer swims 100m.
So the total distance they swim is given by:
T = 100s.
The total distance they swim is less than 1,200 meters.
This means that:
T < 1200
So
100s < 1200
Or
1200 greater than 100s.
So the correct answer is:
1,200 greater-than 100 s
Answer:
A
Step-by-step explanation:
1 year?
Answer:
Steven ears $565 more in one year.
Step-by-step explanation:
Giving the following information:
Mark:
PV= $45,000
n= 1
i= 0.032
Steven:
PV= $45,000
n= 1
i= 0.045
To calculate the Future Value of each investment, we need to use the following formula:
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
Mark:
FV= 45,000*1.032= $46,440
Steven:
FV= 45,000*1.045= $47,025
Difference= 47,025 - 46,440= $565
Steven ears $565 more in one year.
After investing their inheritance for one year, Steven has $585 more than Mark due to the higher interest rate of his investment.
After one year, the amount of money Mark and Steven have can be calculated using the formula for compound interest, which is P(1 + r) to the power of n, where P is the principal amount, r is the annual interest rate, and n is the time in years. So, Mark's future value would be $45000(1 + 0.032) = $46440. In contrast, Steven's future value would be $45000(1 + 0.045) = $47025. Therefore, Steven has $47025 - $46440 = $585 more than Mark after 1 year.
#SPJ3
GRAPH THE FUNCTION:
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
We are given the function f(x) = -3/4(x) +6.
We know that the slope intercept form of a line is y = mx + b
Here, the slope m = -3/4.
The y-coordinate of the y intercept is b = 6 so the y-intercept is at the point (0,6) [x is always 0 at the y-intercept]
If you have to points you can graph the line, we only have the point (0,6).
To find the second point we use the slope.
We add the bottom point of the slope to the x coordinate of the y-intercept and we add the top part of the slope to the y coordinate of the y-intercept, so our second point is (0 + 4, 6 +(-3)) = (4, 3).
You then plot the points we have: (0,6) and (4,3) and draw the line through them.
For A to B, or segment AB, we have the points (1,1) and (4,3). (x1, y1) = (1,1) and (x2, y2) = (4,3);
x = 1 + t(4 - 1)
y = 1 + t(3 - 1)
A to B => (x = 1 + 3t, y = 1 + 2t)
We can apply a similar process for BC and AC. For BC we have (x1, y1) = (4,3) and (x2,y2) = (1,7);
x = 4 + t(1 - 4)
y = 3 + t(7 - 3)
B to C => (x = 4 - 3t, y = 3 + 4t)
(x1, y1) = (1, 1) and (x2, y2) = (1, 7);
x = 1 + t(1 - 1)
y = 1 + t(7 - 1)
A to C => (x = 1, y = 1 + 6t)
Here is your graph of the triangle. Desmos is a really great tool to use;