Answer:
20.19%
Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
As we know that
Future value = Present value × (1 + rate)^number of years
where,
Present value = $2,300
Future value = $4,800
Time period = 4 years
So, the interest rate is
$4,800 = $2,300 × (1 + rate)^4
2.086957 = (1 + rate)^4
So after solving this, the interest rate is 20.19%
Answer:
3.108 mi
Explanation:
at present the workforce complement = 471 which has to grow by 10%
So, the complements after growth = 471 x 1.1 = 518 (rounded off)
Total recruiting cost = No. of complements x ($1000 + Recruiting spend)
= 518 x ($1000 + $5000)
= $3,108,000 i.e. 3.108 mi
The recruitment cost for Baldwin's workforce next year, given the same additional spend per person as the previous year and a 10% increase in the workforce, is expected to be $2.842866 Million. This isn't among the answer options given, which may suggest an error in the question or in the options.
In this question, the Baldwin's workforce complement is expected to grow by 10% next year. The workforce complement this year is 471, meaning it would become 471×1.1=518 next year (rounded to the nearest person). We were given that the recruiting cost this year is 543k, and the additional amount spent above the $1,000 recruiting base last year is $5,000k - $543k = $4,457k.
Assuming the Baldwin spends the same additional amount as they did last year, their total recruiting cost next year can be estimated. Given: Base Recruiting cost = $1,000 , Additional Recruiting cost = $4,457/person. Hence , if they hire 518 people, The total cost of the recruiting would be (Base cost + Additional per person cost)× number of people hired = (1000+4457)× 518 = $2.842866 Million.
However the given options do not include this amount, so there might be an error in the question or in the specified options.
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Answer:1. Maximum transfer price is $60 and it's to be set by the Motel division.
This is the maximum price they will need to get it in the market if they are not buying in-house and it needs to be set by them because it determines the maximum profit it can make from the transaction.
2. The minimum transfer price is $29 and it's to be set by the Furniture division.
This is the production cost and it's still profitable since it has meet his fixed cost at 40,000 unit and the variable cost is $15. The Furniture set the price because it determines the maximum profit it makes from the transaction.
3. Benefit to Motley division is additional profit of $16 per unit for 10,000 units ($31-$15)
Benefit to Furniture division is a reduction in cost of $29 per units on 10000 unit ($60-31)
Benefit to company is the combination of the benefits from both Motly and Furniture division.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "A": PCN.
Explanation:
In international staffing, a Parent Country National (PCN) is an employee that is hired to work in the same country from where the employee is resident and where the company has its headquarters. Usually, firms hire PCNs when foreign cultures are distant.
Answer:
B. A decline in the value of the inventory.
Explanation:
Cost basis accounting: It is a method of calculating the value of inventory on actual cost for tax purposes as the purchase price is adjusted for dividends and return of capital distribution. It uses lower of cost either original cost or current market price. The market price should not be less or more than the net realizable value. Net realizable value is defined as the selling price minus cost of completion. Therefore, the cost basis of accounting to the lower-of- cost-or-net-realizable-value basis in valuing inventory is necessitated by a decline in the value of the inventory.
Answer:
1. Depreciation Expense 2.Credit 3. Accumulated Depreciation
Explanation:
Depreciation is an expense. An increase in expense is always recorded as Debit.
Accumulated Depreciation is an allowance or reserve account which is credited till the time asset is in use.
Answer:
Dr interest expense $7,000
Dr notes payable $7,238
Cr cash $14,238
Explanation:
The first task is to compute interest expense on the loan in year 1 which is shown below:
interest expense=$100,000*7%
interest expense=$7,000
Principal repayment=repayment-interest repayment
Principal repayment=$14,238-$7,000=$7,238
The double entries are to debit interest expense and notes payable with $7,000 and $7,238 respectively while cash is credited with $14,238 as an outflow of cash.