Answer:
Answer for the question:
"1. The real risk-free rate (r*) is 2.80% and is expected to remain constant into the future. Inflation is expected to be 6.80% per year for each of the next two years and 5.60% thereafter.
The maturity risk premium (MRP) is determined from the formula: 0.10 x (t – 1)%, where t is the security’s maturity. The liquidity premium (LP) on all National Transmissions Corp.’s bonds is 1.20%. The following table shows the current relationship between bond ratings and default risk premiums (DRP):
Rating
Default Risk Premium
U.S. Treasury —
AAA 0.60%
AA 0.80%
A 1.05%
BBB 1.45%
National Transmissions Corp. issues thirteen-year, AA-rated bonds. What is the yield on one of these bonds? (Hint: Disregard cross-product terms; that is, if averaging is required, use an arithmetic average.)
10.58%
11.78%
6.00%
2. Based on your understanding of the determinants of interest rates, if everything else remains the same, which of the following will be true?
A) The yield on a AAA-rated bond will be lower than the yield on a AA-rated bond.
B) The yield on a AAA-rated bond will be higher than the yield on a BB-rated bond."
is explained in the attachment.
Explanation:
The yield on National Transmissions Corp.'s thirteen-year, AA-rated bond is 12.20%. Additionally, a AAA-rated bond will have a lower yield than a AA-rated bond due to lower default risk.
To calculate the yield on the bond, we take into account the real risk-free rate (r*), the inflation rate, the default risk premium (DRP), the maturity risk premium (MRP), and the liquidity premium (LP). Note that the inflation rate is given for two different periods, so we take the average of the two (6.80% and 5.60%).
The formula to calculate yield is: r = r* + Inflation rate + MRP + DRP + LP
Hence, the yield on the bond = 2.80% + 6.20% + 1.20% + 0.80% + 1.20% = 12.20%.
For part 2 of the question, the statement A) is correct. The yield of a AAA-rated bond will be lower than that of a AA-rated bond because the default risk of AAA-rated bond is less, hence a lower default risk premium is required.
#SPJ3
Answer:
c. decrease the money supply, increase taxes
Explanation:
Unemployment rate lower than the natural rate of unemployment (long run unemployment), creates inflationary gap in the economy. It requires policies to be contractionary in nature. Hence, money supply should decrease and tax should increase to correct the economy.
Answer:
This quote highlights Adam Smith - Self Interest, Free Reign, Invisible Hand theories
Explanation:
Adam Smith is the Father of Economics.
His self interest theory states that : Individuals working for the best of self interest implies maximum welfare for society as a whole.
Hence, the free reign idea suggests that people as 'self interest' guided rational economic agents should be left free. The invisible hand of market restores any distortions.
Government intervention is considered to be not only unnecessary, but distortionary.
Answer:
a. $49,933,333.33 million
b. $48,533,333.33 million
Explanation:
The computations are presented below:
a. For current profits as dividends in before case
= Profits × (1 + opportunity cost) ÷ (opportunity cost - growth rate)
= $1,400,000 × (1 + 0.07) ÷ (0.07 - 0.04)
= $1,400,000 × 35.6666
= $49,933,333.33 million
b. For current profits as dividends in after case
= Profits × (1 + growth rate) ÷ (opportunity cost - growth rate)
= $1,400,000 × (1 + 0.04) ÷ (0.07 - 0.04)
= $1,400,000 × 34.6666
= $48,533,333.33 million
Using the Gordon growth model, the value of the firm before dividend payouts is calculated to be $49,933,333.33. However, instantly after the dividend payouts, the firm's value becomes zero.
The value of the firm can be determined using the Gordon growth model, which is used to determine the value of a firm or stock that pays dividends that are expected to grow at a constant rate. In such a scenario, the firm's value is equal to the dividends of the next period (D1) divided by the required rate of return minus the growth rate of dividends.
Part A: The firm's value, before the payouts, can be calculated as:
Value = D0 * (1+g) / (k-g) = $1,400,000 * (1+0.04) / (0.07-0.04) = $49,933,333.33
Part B: The firm's value, after payouts, assumes that the firm's capital has come back to the company and will start accumulating again once the next cycle begins. Thus the firm's value would become zero.
#SPJ2
Answer: b.
damages should be measured by the difference between the contract price and the market price of the goods at the port of shipment
Explanation: Because the contract has already been initiated and was defaulted by the seller. The Judge would ask him to pay for damages. And this will be measured by subtracting the contract price of the goods from the market price. I.e the price the goods would gave been sold and the price the seller accepted to sell to the buyer according to the contract they signed.
To record the collection of the note and interest at its maturity, Ayayai Corp. first must calculate and record the accrued interest at the year-end, and then upon maturity, record the collection of the total amount received and credit the Notes Receivable and Interest Revenue.
The first step is to calculate the accrued interest on December 31, 2022. The note was issued on August 1, so the time period until December 31 is 5 months. To calculate the accrued interest, use the formula principal x interest rate x time (in years).
For our case: $48000 x 0.06 x (5/12) = $1200. So, Ayayai Corp. must record an accrual of $1,200 in interest receivable on December 31, 2022. This is done with a debit to Interest Receivable and a credit to Interest Revenue.
When the note matures 9 months from August 1, which will be in May 2023, both the principal and the full interest are due. The interest for 9 months would be $48000 * 0.06 * (9/12) = $2160. Thus, upon collection, Ayayai would debit Cash for the total amount received (principal + full interest), debit Interest Receivable for $1200, credit Notes Receivable for the principal amount, and credit Interest Revenue for the remaining $960.
#SPJ12
Answer:
Decrease in operating income $3,200
Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
Particulars Old method New method
Sales $1,710,000 $1,786,000
(9,000 units × $190) (9,400 units × $190)
Less:
Variable expenses $513,000 $592,200
(9,000 units × $57) (9,400 units × $63)
Contribution margin $1,197,000 $1,193,800
Less:
Fixed expenses ($913,000) ($913,000)
operating income $284,000 $280,800
Decrease in income $3,200
We simply take an difference of operating income under both methods that reflects the decrease in operating income