Answer:
B= 5626.77 m
C= 6220. 5 m
Explanation:
Because the sum of the vectors must be equal to zero, then the result force in x and the result force in y must be zero.
We propose 2 equations x-y to solve the problem:
Rx :resulting from forces at x
Ry: resulting from forces at y
Rx= Ax+Bx+Cx=0
Ry= Ay+By+Cy=0
Ax =1550 *cos25.6°= 1397.84
Ay =1550 *sin25.6° = 669.73
Bx= B*sin41° = 0.656B
By= -B*cos41° = -0.7547 B
Cx= -C*cos35.1°= -0.8181 C
Cy= C* sin35.1° = 0.575 C
Rx= 1397.84+0.656B-0.8181 C=0
Ry= 669.73-0.7547 B+ 0.575 C=0
System of 2 equations with 2 incognites:
+0.656B-0.8181 C= - 1397.84
-0.7547 B+ 0.575 C= -669.73
Resolving the system:
B= 5626.77 m
C= 6220. 5 m
Since the vectors A, B, and C add to zero, their x and y components should add up to zero as well. This information helps create a system of linear equations to solve for the magnitudes of vectors B and C.
The subject matter of this vector question involves physics, specifically vector addition and vector resolution. The key point you must understand here is that these vectors add up to a total of zero. This gives us an equation to solve for the magnitudes of the other vectors, B and C.
First, break each vector into its x (east-west) and y (north-south) components and set up the system of equations. For example, Ax = 1550 cos(25.6°), Ay = 1550 sin(25.6°). Notice that the direction for vector B is given as east of south, which means B's x component is negative and its y component is positive.
When these are added together they should equal zero (since A + B + C = 0), so you will have two equations to solve for the magnitudes of B and C. This is a system of linear equations you'll need to solve, either manually or with calculator.
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Answer:
The time in which the pendulum does a complete revolution is called the period of the pendulum.
Remember that the period of a pendulum is written as:
T = 2*pi*√(L/g)
where:
L = length of the pendulum
pi = 3.14
g = 9.8 m/s^2
Here we know that L = 14.4m
Then the period of the pendulum will be:
T = 2*3.14*√(14.4m/9.8m/s^2) = 7.61s
So one complete oscillation takes 7.61 seconds.
We know that the pendulum starts moving at 8:00 am
We want to know 12:00 noon, which is four hours after the pendulum starts moving.
So, we want to know how many complete oscillations happen in a timelapse of 4 hours.
Each oscillation takes 7.61 seconds.
The total number of oscillations will be the quotient between the total time (4 hours) and the period.
First we need to write both of these in the same units, we know that 1 hour = 3600 seconds
then:
4 hours = 4*(3600 seconds) = 14,400 s
The total number of oscillations in that time frame is:
N = 14,400s/7.61s = 1,892.25
Rounding to the next whole number, we have:
N = 1,892
The pendulum does 1,892 oscillations between 8:00 am and 12:00 noon.
The question involves the concept of a simple pendulum whose number of swings is largely influenced by its length and the acceleration due to gravity. By determining the period of the pendulum, one can figure out the number of oscillations over a given time period. The pendulum's damping constant is negligible in determining the number of oscillations.
The subject of this question involves understanding the concept of a simple pendulum and how it relates to harmonic motion. It is widely known that the mass of the pendulum does not influence the oscillations but rather the length of the pendulum wire and acceleration due to gravity are paramount.
First, the necessary step toward calculating the number of swings would be to calculate the period of the pendulum's oscillation. This is given by the formula T=2*π*sqrt(L/g), where L is the length of the pendulum (14.4m) and g is the acceleration due to gravity (~9.81m/s²). Substituting these values will give us the period, T, in seconds.
The pendulum starts swinging at 8:00 am and at 12:00 noon, 4 hours or 14400 seconds will have passed. Therefore the number of oscillations will be calculated by dividing the total time by one period of oscillation.
It is crucial to note that the damping in this instance is quite small and would not significantly affect the number of oscillations.
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B) because electromagnetic waves transmit energy without compressing the particles of the medium
C) because electromagnetic waves generate their own particles for compression and use these for movement
D) because electromagnetic waves move in two-dimensional space, the particles of mediums exist in 3-D space
Answer:
B) because electromagnetic waves transmit energy without compressing the particles of the medium
Explanation:
Electromagnetic waves are the combination of electric and magnetic field which will oscillate perpendicular to each other. And the propagation of wave here is perpendicular to both electric and magnetic field.
So here in this type of wave propagation we do not require any medium as this is propagation of electric and magnetic field.
So here no need of compression or rarefaction of medium molecules and hence it do not need any medium to travel
so here correct answer is
B) because electromagnetic waves transmit energy without compressing the particles of the medium
marble and car
marble and baseball
car and bowling ball
There is no gravitational force between any of these pairs of objects.
IF all the pairs are separated by the same distance, then it's the car and the bowling ball.
If I can move them as far apart as I want, then I can make ANY of them have the greatest gravitational attraction between them.