The unknownnumber (x) is equal to 80.
This means that 32 is 40 percent of 80, or in other words, 32 is 40 percent of the number 80.
We have,
To explain further, let's break down the calculation step by step:
We are given that 32 is 40 percent of some unknown number. Mathematically, this can be represented as:
32 = 0.40 x
To find the unknown number (represented by x), we want to isolate it on one side of the equation.
By dividing both sides of the equation by 0.40, we eliminate the 0.40 on the right side, and we have:
32 / 0.40 = x
Simplifying the left side:
80 = x
Therefore,
The unknownnumber (x) is equal to 80.
This means that 32 is 40 percent of 80, or in other words, 32 is 40 percent of the number 80.
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80
Given:
32 is 40 percent of what number?
The Process:
Let N as the number asked.
The mathematical equation of the question sentence represents as follows:
Which can be rewritten to be
All we have to do to get the N value is a division operation.
Recall that
... Equation-1
Recall that
... Equation-2
Both 100 and 40 divided by 10 to make it simpler.
32 is crossed out with 4, in other words dividing each other.
Thus, the result is
Alternative-1:
Recall that
From Equation-1 above, we rearrange it into
Both the numerator and denominator are multiplied by 10.
Thus, the result is
Alternative-2:
From Equation-2 above, both 100 and 40 are divided by 20.
32 is crossed out with 2, in other words dividing each other.
Thus, the result is
Alternative-3:
Both sides are multiplied by
Thus, the result is
Keywords: 32 is 40 percent of what number, a division operation, fraction, multiply, 80, decimals, alternative steps, the mathematical equation
x = 2
B.
x = 3
C.
x = 4
D.
x = 13
Answer: A. x = 2
Step-by-step explanation:
In the given picture we have
Since, we know that the corresponding sides in similar triangles are in proportion.
Therefore, we have
But x can not be 13 because BC=11-13=-2, which is not possible.
Therefore, the value of x=2.
A)16 B)18 C)20 D)22 E)24
A= 13+26+39+...+169=
= 13(1+2+3+....+13)=
=13* (13*14)/2=
=13*13*7
=> 13+7=20
So the answer is c)
He changes £900 into dollars.
(a) How many dollars should he get?
The person should get $1530 in exchange for £900.
A ratio indicates the number of times one number contains another.
The exchange rate is given as:
£1 = $1.70
The equivalent amount of £900 in dollars is calculated as:
£1 = $1.70
Multiply both sides by 900:
£900 = $ (1.70×900)
£900 = $1530
Hence, the person should get $1530 in exchange for £900.
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Answer:
f = (1/2)(m), for m = 1
f = (1/2)(1)
Step-by-step explanation:
To use 1 cup of milk, 1/2 cup of flour should be used.
The relationship between the number of cups of flour, f, and the number of cups of milk, m, used in a cake recipe can be modeled by the equation f = 1/2m. To find out how many cups of flour should be used for 1 cup of milk, we can substitute 1 for m in the equation. Plugging in the value of m, we get:
f = 1/2 * 1 = 1/2
So, 1/2 cup of flour should be used for 1 cup of milk.
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