Enter the value of p so the expression 5/6 - 1/3n equivalent to p(5-2n)

Answers

Answer 1
Answer:
You said                          5/6 - 1/3 n  =  p (5 - 2n)

Divide each side by (5 - 2n) :   

                                   p = (5/6 - 1/3 n) / (5 - 2n) .

That's about all you can do with it.
As you can see, the required value for 'p'
depends on the value of 'n'.

If you want to get rid of those awkward fractions,
I guess you could multiply top and bottom by  6 .
Then you have ...

                           p = (5 - 2 n) / 6·(5 - 2n) .

Oh, my goodness !  Look at that !

                           p = 1/6 .

It doesn't even depend on 'n' at all.  It's always true,
no matter what 'n' is.

I am surprised.

Answer 2
Answer:

Answer:

19

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x

Then we have 15 (x + 9) = 420.

We can divide both side by 15, getting x + 9 = 28. Then, we can subtract both sides by 9, getting x = 28 - 9 = 19.

Since there are 15 players and he bought a basketball for each of them, he bought 15 basketballs in total.The price of a basketball costs $9.The total price of all 15 basketballs = $9 * 15 = $135.He spent $420 on uniforms and basketballs, and he spent $135 on basketballs.Thus, he spent $420 - $135 = $285 on uniforms.As he bought a uniform for each of the 15 players, he bought 15 uniforms in total.The price of 15 uniforms is $285.The price of 1 uniform is $285 ÷ 15 = $19.

hope this helps also adding more things to make it easier


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A group of 5 friends shares 35 pieces of candy equally. How many pieces of candy does each friend receive? I need help !!!

Answers

Each friend will receive 7 pieces of candy after dividing it equally.

What is division?

" Division is the method of distributing or sharing any group of items equally."

According to the question,

Total pieces of candy = 35

Total number of friends= 5

Division of candy between 5 friends

Number of candy each friend will received = 35 ÷ 5

                                                                        = 7pieces

Hence, Each friend will receive 7 pieces of candy.

Learn more about division here

brainly.com/question/21416852

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Answer:

7 pieces of candy each friends have

Step-by-step explanation:

35 ÷ 5 = 7

5 × 7 = 35

so the answer is 7

Please help to answer ASAP

Answers

The biker wants to sell a bike for $600 post mark up. You are trying to figure out the retail price as the store owner so that after the 55% mark up, the sale price is $600.

So to do so, take 600÷1.55 = $387.10.

You have 60 marbles in a jar, two of which are red. (so 2 red, 58 not red)You pick 10 at random. What is the chance that you draw both red marbles?
Explanation please, not just the answer. Brainliest answer if you calculate it for 2 out of 251 total marbles as well.

Answers


Well, I agonized over this for a while, and I have something that we may want to consider.

The only probability formula I know how to use is

 Probability = (number of possible successes) / (total number of possibilities).

Can we work with that ?  Let's see . . .

The denominator of that fraction is the total number of ways to draw
10 marbles from a jar of 60 . . .

The first draw can be any one of 60 marbles. For each of those . . .
The second draw can be any one of the remaining 59.  For each of those . . .
The third draw can be any one of the remaining 58.
.
.
etc.

So the total number of ways to draw 10 from 60 is

       (60 x 59 x 58 x 57 x 56 x 55 x 54 x 53 x 52 x 51)

That's a very big number.  My calculator says something that rounds to
2.736 x 10¹⁷. But my calculator only shows 10 digits, so it can't show
all 18 digits in the number.  Fortunately, we don't need to see the whole
number written out.  We'll just write it in factorial notation, and go on
to do the numerator of the fraction, which is going to be much harder.

That number that we just found is equal to  (60!) / (50!) .  It's going to be
the denominator of the big fraction.

Now for the numerator.  That's going to be the number of ways that the
two red marbles can be included among the ten marbles drawn.

One red marble can be any one of the 10 marbles pulled out.
       For each of those . . .
The other red marble can be any one of the other 9 that are picked.

So there are (10 x 9) = 90 ways for the selected 10 to include both red ones.

SO !  Now, the probability that the ten that are drawn will include the two
red ones should be (it might be, it could be) . . .

             90 divided by  (60! / 50!)   .

Remember, that fraction on the right is just total number of ways
to pick 10 out of 60 .  The probability of including both red ones 
in the draw is  90 divided by that number.  It's very small.

Again from my calculator, it's    3.29 x 10⁻¹⁴ percent.

I have no confidence in my answer, but I invite you to look it over, along with
all the real gurus out there. 

If I'm wrong, then I've stolen only 5 points that I'm not entitled to, and at least
I did put some effort into it.

Here you have two proportions. 2/60 and 10/60. I would cross multiply. 
Giving you 20/120.
Simplify that to get 1/6. So you have a 1 in 6 chance of getting both the red marbles.
(I'm not 100% sure since it's been a while so you might want to get a second opinion.) 
Not sure what you mean by the second part, but hope I provided some help :)

X0 1 2 3 4
frequency 4 6 18 7 1
Based on the table, what is P (2 > 1)?
Leave your answer in decimal form to three places.

Answers

Point 4 because it’s correct self explanatory

toothbrush 95g toiletries 1.4kg shoes 3 1/8 kg beach towel 0.6kg clothes 8580g what's the total weight

Answers

toothbrush = 95g
toiletries = 1.4kg
shoes = 3 1/8 kg
beach towel = 0.6 kg
clothes = 8580 g

2 units are present, grams and kilograms, we need to convert one of these units into the other.

since majority of the items are in kg, we convert the g to kg.

1 kg = 1000 g

toothbrush: 95g * 1kg/1000g = 95kg/1000 = 0.095 kg
clothes: 8580g * 1kg/1000g = 8580kg/1000 = 8.58 kg
shoes 3 1/8 kg = 3.125kg
 
toothbrush:        0.095 kg
toiletries             1.400 kg
shoes                 3.125 kg
beach towel       0.600 kg
clothes               8.580 kg
total weight      13.800 kg

   

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Hi sorry for bathed the you do you no the answer please

Eli walk from her house to a friends house in one hour. She can travel the same Distance on her bicycle in 15 minutes. If she rides 6 mph faster than she can walk, What is her speed on the bicycle?

Answers

Answer: her speed on the bicycle is 8 mph

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x represent the speed at which she walks. If she rides 6 mph faster than she can walk, then the speed at which she rides is (x + 6) mph

Distance = speed × time

Eli walk from her house to a friends house in one hour. This means that the distance covered is 1 × x = x miles.

Distance on her bicycle in 15 minutes. Converting 15 minutes to hours, it becomes 15/60 = 0.25 hour. Distance covered while riding is 0.25(x + 6) = 0.25x + 1.5

Since the distance is the same,then

x = 0.25x + 1.5

x - 0.25x = 1.5

0.75x = 1.5

x = 1.5/0.75

x = 2

her speed on the bicycle is

x + 6 = 2 + 6 = 8 mph