42/4 as a improper fraction

Answers

Answer 1
Answer: To figure this out, we need to look for how many times 4 can go into 42.

4*10=40

Later, we have a remainder of 2 because 42-40=2

We write 10 as the whole number and 2 on the numerator.

10 2/4 = 10 1/2

Final answer: 10 1/2 is the mixed number, but the improper fraction simplified is 21/2 

Improper fraction: 21/2
Mixed number: 10 1/2
Answer 2
Answer: **CORRECTION** 21/2 because when you simplify it (dividing the top and the bottom by 2) you get 21/2. My first asnwer was a mixed number

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45is26%of what don't get it

Answers

your formula is %/100 = is/of 

cross multiply your equation would be 100 x 45= 26x

then you solve the equation so multiply 100 and 45 then divide that answer by 26

Hello! can you help me please <3)

Answers

domain is all the x- coordinates

range is all the y-coordinates

hope this helps :)

What whole number is equivalent to 16/1 ?

Answers

i think it is equivalent to 16
hope that helps! :)

16, because if you think about it it's just 16 divided by 1 so it's 16!

What is 21 divided by 1/3?

Answers

21 divided by 1/3 is equal to 63.

Given that we need to divide 21 by 1/3,

To divide a number by a fraction, you can multiply the number by the reciprocal of the fraction.

The reciprocal of a fraction is obtained by swapping the numerator and the denominator.

In this case, you want to divide 21 by 1/3. To find the result, you multiply 21 by the reciprocal of 1/3. The reciprocal of 1/3 is 3/1, which means you swap the numerator and the denominator to get 3/1.

So, the division problem can be rewritten as 21 multiplied by 3/1:

21 x (3/1)

Now, you can simplify the expression by multiplying the numerators (21 x 3) and the denominators (1 x 1):

63/1

Since the denominator is 1, you can write the result as: 63

Therefore, 21 divided by 1/3 is equal to 63.

Learn more about division click;

brainly.com/question/2273245

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\frac { 21 }{ \frac { 1 }{ 3 }  } \n \n =\frac { 21 }{ 1 } \cdot \frac { 3 }{ 1 } \n \n =63

During a sale 36 similar handbags are sold for a total of $1,620. Before the sale, the same number of handbags were sold at $49 each. What is the difference between the amount if money before and after the sale?

Answers

Hey there!

Here are the steps involved in answering this question:

1. We know that 36 handbags were sold for $1620 during the sale. 

2. We want to know how much money they earned by selling 36 handbags for 49 dollars each. 

Steps:

1. Since 36 handbags were also sold before the sale, multiply 49 by 36.

36 x 49 = 1764

They earned $1764 before the sale. 

Now, find the difference between each of the sales.

1764 - 1620 = 144

Answer: $144

(If you feel that my answer has helped you, please consider rating it and giving it a thank you! Also, feel free to choose the best answer, the brainliest answer!)

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13 QUOLIUI. IPU100 JU10 Compie
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Find the slope of the line in the figure. If the slope of the line is undefined, so state
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OB. The slope is undefined
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Answers

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