How many times can 3 go into 400

Answers

Answer 1
Answer:

3 can go into 400 a total of 133 times, with a remainder of 1.

To determine how many times 3 can go into 400, we need to perform division.

When we divide 400 by 3, the quotient represents the number of times 3 can be evenly divided into 400. The remainder, if any, represents any leftover portion after the division.

Let's perform the division:

400 ÷ 3 = 133 remainder 1

The quotient is 133, which means 3 can go into 400 evenly 133 times. The remainder is 1, indicating that there is one left over after dividing 400 by 3.

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Answer 2
Answer: 133.333333333 the 3 goes on forever

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nanci is volunteering at the animal shelter .she wants to spend an equal amount of time playing with each dog.she has 145 minutes to play with all 7 dogs .about how much time can she spend with each dog?

Answers

Since Nanci has 145 minutes of play time with 7 dogs.

You do 145÷7 which gives you 20.7 we can't round to 21 cause that would be over limit. So she has roughly 20 minutes to play with each dog.

Answer:

20(5)/(7)(minutes)/(dog)

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that

To find how much time can Nancy spend with each dog, divide the total time by the number of dogs

so

(145)/(7)(minutes)/(dogs)= (140)/(7)+(5)/(7)=20(5)/(7)(minutes)/(dog)


A ceramic artist can shape a pot in 3 minutes. It takes 10 minutes to fire one batch of pots in the kiln. If there are p pots in a batch, which expression represents the time it takes to shape and fire one batch of pots? How long will it take the potter to form and fire a batch of 10 pots?The expression is 3p. It takes 30 minutes to shape and fire 10 pots.

The expression is 3p − 10. It takes 20 minutes to shape and fire 10 pots.

The expression is 3(p + 10). It takes 60 minutes to shape and fire 10 pots.

The expression is 3p + 10. It takes 40 minutes to shape and fire 10 pots.

Answers

3p + 10 (40 minutes)
3p+10. 3 minutes per pot to shape it. Time taken to shape all p pots is 3p. Then it takes 10 minutes to fire the batch. 

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26/36 in lowest terms

Answers

26/36 in lowest terms is  13/18 because you have to divide both numerator and denominator by the highest number that can ggo into them.

For example 5/10, 5 is the higest number it can go into for both numbers so 5 goes into 5 1 time and 5 goes in to 10 2 times so the fraction is 1/2
26/36

What is the highest number by which you can divide them both ?

Its 2...!

So, divide them by 2.

26/36 ÷ 2/2 = 13/18

-7v - 5= -7 +2(-3v-3)

Answers

Answer:

v=8

Step-by-step explanation:

-7v-5=-7+2(-3v-3)
Distribute the 2 to -3v and -3
-7v-5=-7-6v-6
Combine Like Terms
-7v-5=-13-6v
Add -6v to -7v
v-5=-13 or 1v-5=-13
Add 5 to both sides
Answer= v=-8

What is the greatest perimeter of a rectangle with an area of 39 sq. ft.?

Answers

To find the answer you do 39×4. You multiply by 4 because there are 4 sides.

This will be the biggest number.
Rectangle A: 
-- Length = 20-ft, Width = 10-ft. 
-- Area = 200 square ft 
-- Perimeter = 60-ft 

Rectangle B: 
-- Length = 16-ft, Width = 12.5-ft 
-- Area = 200 square ft 
-- Perimeter = 57-ft 

Rectangle C: 
-- Length = 40-ft, Width = 5-ft 
-- Area = 200 square ft 
-- Perimeter = 90-ft 

Rectangle D: 
-- Length = 50-ft, Width = 4-ft 
-- Area = 200 square ft 
-- Perimeter = 108-ft 

Rectangle E: 
-- Length = 100-ft, Width = 2-ft 
-- Area = 200 square ft 
-- Perimeter = 204-ft 

Rectangle F: 
-- Length = 800-ft, Width = 3 inches 
-- Area = 200 square ft 
-- Perimeter = 1600-ft 6-in

Which of the following is the solution to ? | x | -2<= -3A.x<= -1
B. All values are solutions
C. No solution
D.x<= -1 and x>=5

Answers

Answer:

C)) No Solution

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Add two to both sides

2. Simplify

|x|<= -1

3. Rewrite the inequality without the absolute value.

4. since 1<= -1 is not true this inequality is always false