How did the londan underground railway become a huge sucess?explain?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer: London Underground Railway was a huge success because of the following reasons I'm telling you ---
1. The population of London increased dramatically because many people migrated from villages to the city in search of work.
2. People of the city were accommodated outside the city in family cottages, while the industrial places where they worked were located on the inside of London.
3. Some form of transport was needed so that people could commute from home to work and back home, and the Underground Railway helped in that a lot, because it was the only mode of transport which carried a large number of people in a short span of time.
4. Although the railway was discouraged earlier because people complained of suffocation, it became a huge success because it was the only way of connecting their homes with their workplace.
Hope I helped!
If there is anything more you want to ask related to this, just comment here I will be glad to help! :)

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Which term identifies the cell’s ability to maintain its internal conditions?transport
diffusion
osmosis
homeostasis

Answers

It would be "homeostasis" that is the term that identifies the cell’s ability to maintain its internal conditions, since this is one of the most crucial functions for a cell--regulating things like heat, waste, etc.

Answer:

D: Homeostasis

Explanation:

How does opec foster interdependence among members?

Answers

OPEC'S members consist of the countries that had the most natural Gas/oil reserve and control most of the oil/gas and market in the world.
Often time, to control the situation in the market, OPEC will rely on its members to respect the quota of export so they can keep the condition of the supply/demand in the market stabilized

Which of the following was located in the Eastern Roman Empire?a. Gaul
b. Britain
c. Anatolia
d. Spain

Answers

The answer is c. Anatolia. It is also known as Asia Minor, and it was located in the Eastern Roman Empire. Gaul is present-day France, which is incorrect. It was also part of the Western Empire. Britain was part of the Western Roman Empire, and Spain was, too.
Hope that helped you.

Answer:

Explanation:

Why did the Emancipation Proclamation free slaves only in Confederate states? A President Lincoln did not have the authority to remove property from U.S. citizens. B President Lincoln did not have the authority to naturalize Northern freedmen into citizens. C Northern legislatures had already passed legislation blocking emancipation. D Northern legislatures had already passed the Emancipation Proclamation.

Answers

I think D: Northern legislatures had already passed the Emancipation Proclamation is your best bet. Lincoln didn't have the right to give the executive order in the states that had congressional representation which was strictly the Union . However, in the rebellious states (the south) he was able to impose his authority over them because they were technically looked at as having committed treason against the Union. Does that make sense?

Hopefully this helped and good luck.

Answer:

the awnser is A

Explanation:

I need help w/ this question.

Answers

The answer is b
Hope I helped

The answer to this question is B.

What does "off the record" mean?

Answers

not intended to be known publicly or recorded officially

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