Yes, they are independent because P(Texas) ≈ 0.45 and P(Texas/brand A) ≈ 0.45.
The literal meaning of Independent Events is the events which occur freely of each other.
A taste test asks people from Texas and California which pasta they prefer, brand A or brand B.
A person is randomly selected from those tested.
And we have find that are being from Texas and preferring brand A independent events or not.
Firstly, we know that these two events will be independent when;
Hence, being from Texas and preferring brand A are independent events because P(Texas) ≈ 0.45 and P(Texas/brand A) ≈ 0.45.
Learn more about independent events here;
#SPJ2
Answer:
I am not 100% sure, but just thinking about it logically, they should not be independent events, and I believe it is A.
Step-by-step explanation:
The reason I believe they are not independent events is because people in California may be used to eating a certain flavor pallet in their area, whereas Texas may have different general flavors in their area. Now as far as the numbers, I am not entirely sure, I am assuming you know since your question was just asking if they were independent or not. However, if it is percent, it does seem like A makes the most sense in relation to the totals. Also you can use deductive reasoning. Most often when there are answer choices, there is one correct answer choice, and the others have all the same aspects, but only 1 thing is changed. Since this is generally the case, you can take similarities between answer choices as parts that are correct, and the little variances which are only in one answer as modifications from the correct answer. For instance in this question, there is 1 that says yes, and 2 that say no. Because of this, I assume that it must be no since yes must be that one modification that makes that answer choice incorrect. Now its A or B. I look at all the answer choices and see that B is the only one that says California brand B is .36 whereas the other two say .55. From this I assume that .36 is the variance that makes it incorrect, leaving me with A as my answer.
Whole numbers are the numbers 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6...and so on. It is easier to compare two numbers through the millions using a place value chart. This is illustrated in the Figure bellow. In that example, we have chosen two numbers:
Number one:8,472,102
Number two:8,470,443
So, by comparing these numbers we will have the following steps:
Step 1. The millions are both 8.
Step 2. The hundred thousands are both 4.
Step 3. The ten thousands are both 7.
Step 4. The one thousands digits are 2 and 0.
Stop in this step and compare the digits, so:
2 is greater than 0 or 2 > 0
Therefore, the solution is:
Number one > Number two, that is:
8,472,102 > 8,470,443
In conclusion, you need to stop in the step at which the digits are not the same and compare them. The greatest number is the one with the greatest digit.
-125i
-15i
15i
125i
Good morning ☕️
______
Answer:
125i
___________________
Step-by-step explanation:
5³× i⁹ = 125 × i¹ = 125i
By the way :
i⁹ = (i⁴)²× i¹ = (1)²×i = i.
:)
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
When we have potential expression that include imaginary numbers, we have to consider some basic results, because these imaginary potential expression are cyclical.
We know that:
So, elevating both members to a third power, we have:
So, , which is the beginning, that's why we say that it's like a cycle.
So, from the problem, we have:
To solve this, we consider the operations from the beginning:
; and
; because
Therefore, the result would be