Renee is a sales associate at a store. She earns $80 a week plus a 15% commission on her sales. Last week, she sold $200 worth of items. What is the total amount Renee earned for the week? How much did she earn from commission? Renee earned a total of $ for the week.
a. 93
b. 110
c. 122
d. 295

The amount she earned from commission was $
a. 12
b. 15
c. 30
d. 42

PLEASE HELP!! REALLY STUCK!

Answers

Answer 1

Answer: An easy way to do this specific problem is to divide 200 by 2, since it's just two 100s. Now that you have two 100s, it's easy to see that 15% of 100 is 15. Since you have two 100s, multiply 15 by two. In the future, to calculate percentages, use this formula:

is/of = percent/100

is/200 = 15/100
200 * 15 = 3,000
3,000 / 100 = 30

Just add the commission to the amount she earns each week to her total income for this week.

30 + 80 = 110

Renee earned a total of $110 (B) and earned $30 (C) from commission.

Answer 2

Answer: 200x15%=30$ of commission
80+30=110$ in total for the week

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Answers

Answer:

$P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^(3-0)=0.729$

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

$P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^(5-0)=0.774$

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^(n-x)$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=(n!)/((n-x)! x!)$

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

$P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^(3-0)=0.729$

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^(n-y)$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCy=(n!)/((n-y)! y!)$

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

$P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^(5-0)=0.774$

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

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−13

3

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Answers

The answer would be 3

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Answers

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Answers

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Answers

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Answers

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Let's substitute the corresponding values into its appropriate places: the starting amount is $4,400, the rate is 0.065 but we need to add an 1 because it's an exponential growth problem so it would be 1.065, and the time is 3 years.

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

5347.37

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