Yes, they are independent because P(Texas) ≈ 0.45 and P(Texas/brand A) ≈ 0.45.
The literal meaning of Independent Events is the events which occur freely of each other.
A taste test asks people from Texas and California which pasta they prefer, brand A or brand B.
A person is randomly selected from those tested.
And we have find that are being from Texas and preferring brand A independent events or not.
Firstly, we know that these two events will be independent when;
Hence, being from Texas and preferring brand A are independent events because P(Texas) ≈ 0.45 and P(Texas/brand A) ≈ 0.45.
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Answer:
I am not 100% sure, but just thinking about it logically, they should not be independent events, and I believe it is A.
Step-by-step explanation:
The reason I believe they are not independent events is because people in California may be used to eating a certain flavor pallet in their area, whereas Texas may have different general flavors in their area. Now as far as the numbers, I am not entirely sure, I am assuming you know since your question was just asking if they were independent or not. However, if it is percent, it does seem like A makes the most sense in relation to the totals. Also you can use deductive reasoning. Most often when there are answer choices, there is one correct answer choice, and the others have all the same aspects, but only 1 thing is changed. Since this is generally the case, you can take similarities between answer choices as parts that are correct, and the little variances which are only in one answer as modifications from the correct answer. For instance in this question, there is 1 that says yes, and 2 that say no. Because of this, I assume that it must be no since yes must be that one modification that makes that answer choice incorrect. Now its A or B. I look at all the answer choices and see that B is the only one that says California brand B is .36 whereas the other two say .55. From this I assume that .36 is the variance that makes it incorrect, leaving me with A as my answer.
Answer: It is only the 3rd equation that is a good example to Jeremy's argument. Others are counter examples to Jeremy's argument.
Step-by-step explanation:
Let us consider the general linear equation
Y = MX + C
On a coordinate plane, a line goes through points (0, negative 1) and (2, 0).
Slope = ( 0 - -1)/( 2- 0) = 1/2
When x = 0, Y = -1
Substitutes both into general linear equation
-1 = 1/2(0) + C
C = -1
The equations for the coordinate is therefore
Y = 1/2X - 1
Let's check the equations one after the other
y = negative one-half x minus 1
Y = -1/2X - 1
y = negative one-half x + 1
Y = -1/2X + 1
y = one-half x minus 1
Y = 1/2X - 1
y = one-half x + 1
Y = 1/2X + 1
It is only the 3rd equation that is a good example to Jeremy's argument. Others are counter examples to Jeremy's argument.
Jeremy's claim that if a linear function has the same steepness (slope) and the same y-intercept, it must be the same function is not correct. A counterexample is y = negative one-half x + 1, which has the same steepness and y-intercept but is a different function.
The line going through points (0, negative 1) and (2, 0) can be expressed in slope-intercept form (y = mx + b) where the slope m can be calculated as (y2-y1)/(x2-x1) and the y-intercept b is the y-value when x=0. For this line, we have m = (0 - (-1))/(2-0) = 1/2 and b = -1. Hence, the equation for this line is y = one-half x - 1.
However, we can prove Jeremy's claim wrong with a counterexample. Even if a function has the same slope and y-intercept, it doesn't necessarily mean they represent the same function. A counterexample is y = negative one-half x + 1. This line has the same steepness (slope -1/2) but a different direction (its slope is negative, unlike the other line), and the same y-intercept (y=1 when x=0) but it's not the same function.
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