In this problem we need to make the following addition:
2 + 8
According to this I would use the following strategy:
1. Break apart strategy:
This strategy consists in the decomposition or separation of numbers. In this way, we may break number 2 and 8 down to place value and add each, starting with the 8 or keep one number intact and only break second number down by place value and adding each place. Anyway, using this strategy we have:
2 + 8 = ?
Thus, 2 breaks into 1 plus 1 (1 + 1), 8 breaks into 4 plus 4 (4 + 4), so by associative property:
2. Explain how I decided.
The strategy of breaking apart numbers is an easy way to find additions. This strategy is amazing to add larger numbers. Therefore, we may break larger numbers up into hundreds, tens, ones, then add them.
Answer:
two inequalities are the same, have the same answer, or mean the same thing
Step-by-step explanation:
Sorry if I am wrong because I probably am
Answer:
=9(z+3)
Step-by-step explanation:
Distributive property: a(b+c)=ab+ac
First, you had to rewrite the problem down of 27=9*3
Then, you can also factor it out by the common term of 9.
Hope this helps!
Thanks!
-Charlie
:)
The equivalent expression for 9z+27 is 9(z+3). By factoring out the greatest common factor, we can simplify the expression and represent it in a different form. For example, if z=5, then the original expression 9z+27 is equal to 72, which is also the value of the equivalent expression 9(z+3).
The equivalent expression for 9z+27 is 9(z+3).
To find the equivalent expression, we can factor out the greatest common factor of the terms, which in this case is 9. We can rewrite the expression as 9(z+3), where z+3 represents the remaining terms after factoring out 9.
For example, if z=5, then the original expression 9z+27 becomes 9(5)+27 = 45+27 = 72, and the equivalent expression 9(z+3) also becomes 9(5+3) = 72.
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Step-by-step explanation:
Let be the probability of winning.
Let be the probability of loosing.
Given that we win once in thousand times.
So,
Since
Since we win noting if we loose,
expected payoff is product of probability of winning and the prize.
Let be the prize.
Given,
Expected payoff is
So,$ is the expected payoff each time.
Answer:
$0.4
Step-by-step explanation:
No, there is no integer between 0 and 1.
The number system is a way to represent or express numbers.
A decimal number is a very common number that we use frequently.
Since the decimal number system employs ten digits from 0 to 9, it has a base of 10.
Any of the multiple sets of symbols and the guidelines for utilizing them to represent numbers are included in the Number System.
All number which is not in a fraction can be counted as an integer.
The number in between 0 and 1 are 0.01 , 0.02 , 0.001 etc.
So, all numbers between 0 and 1 will be decimal there is no single whole number present.
Hence "There is no integer between 0 and 1".
For more about the number system,
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