What is 50.00 minus 30%?
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Because ⬇
50.00( 50.00 × 3 ÷ 100)
50.00 - 15.00 = 35.00
That's how I found out that "50.00 - 30% " was equalling to '35' (or you can put '35.00'
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What is the value of the binary number 101 in base 10?
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Answers
Since the triangle is a right triangle, we can use the pythagorean theorem to solve for the one remaining side.
Plug in your values
a = 9
b = ?
c = 15
9^2 + b^ = 15^2. Square root 9 and 15
81 + b^2 = 225. Subtract 81 from each side.
b^2 = 144. Take the square root of each side.
b = 12.
Now we know the length and width of the rectangle.
Perimeter = 2(12 + 9)
Perimeter = 42 in
-5.97, 600, 205, 456.98, -45.9
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Answer:
-45.9 , -5.97 , 205 , 456.98 , 600
Answers
Answer:
x=30
Step-by-step explanation:
Answers
Answers
Answer:
- E(X) = 60*1/6 = 10
- sd(X) = √8.666 = 2.886
- E(Y) = 600*1/6 = 100
- sd(Y) = √86.666 = 9.1287
Step-by-step explanation:
Lets call X the amount of aces obtained in 60 rolls, and Y the amount of aces obtained in 600 rolls.
Note that both X and Y are obtained from counting the amount of successful tries from repetitions of independent experiments that have 1/6 of probability of success. Thus, both X and Y are random variables with binomial distribution, with n = 60 and 600 respectively and probability 1/6.
Remember that if Z is a random variable, Z ≈ Bi(n,p), then
- E(Z) = np, where E(Z) denotes the expected value of Z
- V(Z) = np(1-p), where V(Z) denotes the variance of Z. Hence, the standard deviation is the square root of V(Z), √(np(1-p)).
As a result
- E(X) = 60*1/6 = 10
- V(X) = 10*(1-1/6) = 50/6 ≅ 8.666
- sd(X) = √8.666 = 2.886
- E(Y) = 600*1/6 = 100
- V(Y) = 100*(1-1/6) = 500/6 ≅ 86.666
- sd(Y) = √86.666 = 9.1287
The observed amount of aces is more likely to be closer from the expected value with 60 rolls because, since we have less rolls, it is more difficult to obtain spread results.
You can also notice that X and Y can be obtained by summing independent variables with distribution BI(1,p) (also called Bernoulli(p) ). When you sum independent variables with the same distribution you have this property:
- E(r1+r2+...+rn) = n*E(r1)
- V(r1+r2+...+rn) = n*V(r1)
- sd(r1+r2+...+rn) = √n*sd(r1)
X can be obtained by summing 60 independent variables r1, ...., r60 with mean 1/6 and variance 1/6*(5/6) = 5/36. So we obtain that V(X) = 60*5/36, and sd(X) = √60 * √(5/36). While for the same argument sd(Y) = √600*√(5/36). The higher the number of rolls, the more spread the results are.
I hope this helped you!
The expected number of aces from 60 rolls of a fair die is 10 with a standard deviation of approximately 3.72. For 600 rolls, the expected number is 100 with a standard deviation of about 11.79. The observed count of aces is more likely to be closer to the expected value with fewer rolls due to the smaller standard deviation relative to the number of trials.
The expected value for the number of aces in a fair die roll is computed by multiplying the probability of rolling an ace by the number of rolls. For 60 rolls, the expected number is
. For 600 rolls, the expected number is
The standard deviation for the number of aces is calculated using the formula for the standard deviation of a binomial distribution, , where n is the number of trials, p the probability of success (
for an ace). For 60 rolls, it is
. For 600 rolls, it's
.
When you roll the die 60 times, the chances of the observed count of aces being within 2 from the expected value (10) is higher because the standard deviation is smaller relative to the number of trials than when you roll the die 600 times.
As the number of trials increases, the expected standard deviation grows larger, and the observed count is more likely to be within a wider range from the expected value (100).
Learn more about standard deviation here:
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Answers
The number of hours that it will take for both Hannah and Destiny to paint the room when they are working together is 9 8/9 hours.
Based on the information given, the fraction that can be painted by Hannah in an hour will be 1/20.
The fraction that can be painted by Destiny in an hour will be 1/16.
Therefore, the formula to solve the question will be:
1/20x + 1/16x = 1/1
4x + 5x = 80
9x = 80
Divide both side by 9
9x/9 = 80/9
x = 8 8/9 hours.
Therefore, it'll take them 8 8/9 hours to paint the room.
Read related link on:
amount of room destiny can paint in an hour = 1/16
number of hours = x
1/20x + 1/16x = 1
the reason why this formula is true is, the amount of the room painted in the end should be 1 (the whole room)
4/80x + 5/80x = 1
9/80x = 1
9x = 80
x = 80/9 hours
x = 8.89 hours