Answer:
Tarrow Corporation
a) Amount of change in millions and the percent of change:
Amount Percentage Direction
of Change of Change of Change
Revenue $30,972 8.7% Increase
Operating expenses 23,634 7.8% Increase
Operating income $7,338 13.8% Increase
b) During the recent year, revenue and operating expenses increased by 8.7% and 7.8% respectively. As a result, the operating income increased by 13.8%, from the prior year.
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Tarrow Corporation:
Recent Year Prior Year Change Percentage
Revenue $386,972 $356,000 $30,972 8.7% Increase
Operating expenses 326,634 303,000 23,634 7.8% Increase
Operating income $60,338 $53,000 $7,338 13.8% Increase
Answer:
10.75%
Explanation:
The computation of the effective annual interest rate is shown below:
= Interest ÷ total net amount available
where,
Total net amount available would be
= Loan amount - Loan amount × interest rate - loan amount × compensating percentage
= $25,000,000 - $25,000,000 × 8.25% - $25,000,000 × 15%
= $25,000,000 - $2062,500 - $3,750,000
= $19,187,500
And, the interest would be $2,062,500
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the rate would equal to
= $2,062,500 ÷ $19,187,500
= 10.75%
b. What is the company's unlevered cost of equity capital?
c-1. What would the cost of equity be if the debt-equity ratio were 2?
c-2. What would the cost of equity be if the debt-equity ratio were 1.0?
c-3. What would the cost of equity be if the debt-equity ratio were zero?
Answer: a. WACC = Ke(E/V} + kd(D/V)(1-T)
9.1 = ke(100/160) + 6.4(60/160)(1-0.22)
9.1 = ke(0.625) + 2.4(0.78)
9.1 = 0.625ke + 1.872
9.1-1.872 = 0.625ke
7.228 = 0.625ke
ke = 7.228/0.625
ke = 11.56%
b. WACC = Ke(E/V)
9.1 = ke(100/160)
9.1 = 0.625ke
ke = 9.1/0.625
ke = 14.56%
c-1. WACC = Ke(E/V} + kd(D/V)(1-T)
9.1 = ke(1/3) + 6.4(2/3)(1-0.22)
9.1 = 0.3333ke + 3.328
9.1 - 3.328 = 0.3333ke
5.772 = 0.3333ke
ke = 5.772/0.3333
ke = 17.32%
c-2. 9.1 = ke(1/2) + 6.4(1/2)(1-0.22)
9.1 = 0.5ke + 2.496
9.1 - 2.496 = 0.5ke
6.604 = 0.5ke
ke = 6.604/0.5
ke = 13.21%
c-3. 9.1 = ke (0/0) + kd (0/)
ke = 0%
Explanation:
a. in the a part of the question, the debt-equity ratio was 0.6 ie 60/100. Thus, the value of the firm equals 160. The figures given in the question were substituted in the formula. Cost of equity was not provided, therefore, it becomes the subject of the formula. The variables are defined as follows:
ke = Cost of equity = ?
kd = Cost of debt = 6.4%
E = Value of equity = 100
D = Value of debt = 60
V = Value of the firm ie E + D = 100 + 60 = 160
T = Tax rate = 22% = 0.22
b. In this part of the question, only equity would be considered since we are calculating unlevered cost of equity. The part of the formula that deals with debt will be ignored.
c-1. In this case, the debt-equity ratio is 2. Therefore, debt equals 2 while equity is 1. The value of the firm becomes 3. There is need to substitute these values in the original formula while other variables remain constant.
c-2. In this scenario, the debt-equity ratio is 1. Thus, equity is 1 and debt is also 1. The value of the company changes to 2. These new values would be substituted in the formula in order to obtain the new cost of equity.
c-3. since the debt-equity ratio is 0, therefore, the cost of equity equals 0.
a. The company's cost of equity capital is 8.6014%. b. The company's unlevered cost of equity capital is 5.8729%. c-1. If the debt-equity ratio were 2, the cost of equity would be 8.6788%. c-2. If the debt-equity ratio were 1.0, the cost of equity would be 8.8894%. c-3. If the debt-equity ratio were zero, the cost of equity would be 5.8729%.
a. The formula to calculate the cost of equity capital is: Cost of Equity = WACC - (Debt/Equity) * (WACC - Cost of Debt) * (1 - Tax Rate). So, by plugging in the given values, we get Cost of Equity = 9.1% - 0.6 * (9.1% - 6.4%) * (1 - 0.22) = 9.1% - 0.6 * 2.7% * 0.78 = 9.1% - 0.4986% = 8.6014%.
b. The unlevered cost of equity capital can be calculated using the formula: Unlevered Cost of Equity = Cost of Equity / (1 + (Debt/Equity) * (1 - Tax Rate)). So, by plugging in the given values, we get Unlevered Cost of Equity = 8.6014% / (1 + 0.6 * 0.78) = 8.6014% / 1.468 = 5.8729%.
c-1. If the debt-equity ratio were 2, the new cost of equity can be calculated using the same formula as in part a. By plugging in the new debt-equity ratio, we get Cost of Equity = 9.1% - 2 * (9.1% - 6.4%) * (1 - 0.22) = 9.1% - 2 * 2.7% * 0.78 = 9.1% - 0.4212% = 8.6788%.
c-2. If the debt-equity ratio were 1.0, the new cost of equity can be calculated using the same formula as in part a. By plugging in the new debt-equity ratio, we get Cost of Equity = 9.1% - 1.0 * (9.1% - 6.4%) * (1 - 0.22) = 9.1% - 1.0 * 2.7% * 0.78 = 9.1% - 0.2106% = 8.8894%.
c-3. If the debt-equity ratio were zero (meaning no debt), the new cost of equity would be the same as the unlevered cost of equity calculated in part b, which is 5.8729%.
#SPJ2
2. What is the price-eamings ratio? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)
Answer:
1. What are eamings per share (EPS)? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g. 32.16.)
Answer: $ 1.31 / share
2. What is the price-eamings ratio? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)
Answer: 35.11
Explanation:
Earning Per Share (EPS) = Net Income - Preferred dividends / Outstanding Number of Share
Earning Per Share (EPS) = $6,800,000 - 0 / 5,200,000 shares
Earning Per Share (EPS) = $6,800,000 / 5,200,000 shares
Earning Per Share (EPS) = $1.31 / share
Price earning ratio = Share price / Earning per share
Price earning ratio = $46 per share / $1.31 per share
Price earning ratio = $46 / $1.31
Price earning ratio = 35.11
Answer:
Method B should be used
Explanation:
Note: See the attached excel file for the calculation of the present worth of Method A and Method B.
From the attached excel file, we have:
Present worth of Method A = –$210,889.85
Present worth of Method B = –$118,011.18
Since the present worth of Method A and B above imply Method A costs more than Method B, Method B should be used.
a. Journalize any required 2016 entries for the bond investment.
b. How much cash interest will Astro Mile receive each year from CoteCorp?
c. How much interest revenue will Astro Mile report during 2016 on this bond investment?
Answer:
Dr bond investment $1,400,000
Cr cash $1,400,000
Cash interest is $112,000.00
Interest revenue for the year is also $ 112,000.00
Explanation:
The cash paid for the investment is $1,400,000, this would be debited to bond investment and credited to cash since it is an outflow of cash from the business.
At six-month interval, coupon receivable=$1,400,000*8%*1/2=$ 56,000.00
annual coupon receivable=$ 56,000.00 *2=$ 112,000.00