Answer:
1 mile- 2/10 hr
Step-by-step explanation:
2 miles- 2/5 hr
1 mile- 2/10 hr
(divide by 2)
hope this helped :)
A. P(Both defective) = start fraction six over 25 end fraction
B. P(Both defective) = start fraction one over 118 end fraction
C. P(Both defective) = start fraction three over 250 end fraction
D. P(Both defective) = start fraction nine over 625 end fraction
The probability that the two selected cans are defective, when the quality control worker selects the two cans from a batch of 60 cans is 1/118.
Probability of an event is the ratio of number of favorable outcome to the total number of outcome of that event.
A manufacturer produces soda cans and a quality control worker randomly selects two cans from the assembly line for testing.
Past statistics show that 10% of the cans are defective. Thus the probability of defective can to be selected is,
There is total 60 cans in which 10 percent are defective. Hence the total defective can in one batch are 6.
In the second attampt the number of total can in batch will be 59 and number of defective can will be 5.
The probability that the two selected cans are defective, when the quality control worker selects the two cans from a batch of 60 cans by chain rule is,
Thus, the probability that the two selected cans are defective, when the quality control worker selects the two cans from a batch of 60 cans is 1/118.
Learn more about the probability here;
Answer:
22 lawns could be mowed as it takes 1.5 hours per lawn.
If they sold six lizards they would earn $71.82
There are 18 coins total in her bag:
7+3+8=18coins
3 of the 18 coins are dimes, so the odds of first drawing a dime are 3/18
P(dime)=3/18
Since the nickel was taken out and not replaced, there are now 17 coins in her purse.
18-1=17coins
8 of the 17 remaining coins are nickels, so the odds of drawing a nickel are 8/17.
P(nickel)=8/17
Now we multiply the two probabilities by eachother to find out the odds of both occurring...
P(dime)*P(nickel)=
3/18*8/17=24/306=8/103=0.078=8%
The probability of grabbing a dime and then a nickel are 8/103 or 0.078 or an 8% chance, whichever way you'd prefer to write it.
f(a) = 3(a + 2) - 1
Answer:
20
Step-by-step explanation:
first plug it in, then solve. Step by step:
3(5 + 2) - 1
3(7) - 1
21 - 1
20