Which inventor created a delivery system for electricity that was deemed safer than Thomas Edison's system? a. Henry Flagler
b. George Proctor
c. George Westinghouse
d. Thomas DeSaille Tucker
Answers
George Westinghouse created a safer and more efficient system for electricity delivery using Alternating Current (AC), which proved superior to Thomas Edison's Direct Current (DC) system.The correct option is C.
The inventor who created a delivery system for electricity that was deemed safer than Thomas Edison's system is George Westinghouse. While Edison's system utilized Direct Current (DC), Westinghouse's approach involved the use of Alternating Current (AC).
This advanced system enabled the delivery of electric power across much farther distances and changed how electricity was used in homes, businesses, and industries.
It led to the expansion of urban areas and allowed factories to operate round-the-clock.
Edison and Westinghouse engaged in a public contention over which system was superior. Despite Edison's efforts to discredit AC power, his method was eventually deemed less efficient, and he had to adapt to the use of AC power due to its growing popularity.
Therefor the correct option is C.
Learn more about Westinghouse's AC Power here:
#SPJ6
Related Questions
Which one of the following statements about sulfuric acid is correct? A. Sulfuric acid is a known muriatic acid. B. Sulfuric acid is a strong oxidizing agent. C. Sulfuric acid is dangerous to living organisms. D. Sulfuric acid has little effect on metals
When object A collides with object B and bounces back, its final momentum is ____ its initial momentum.a. greater than c. in the same direction as b. less than d. in the opposite direction of
A material has a net electric charge because it _____.A. has friction between electrons and protons B. has the ability to create static discharge C. has an excess or shortage of electrons. D. has a large atomic nucleus
What type of force cause an object to accelerate??
Answers
Answer: The correct answer is False.
Explanation:
Scientists use the Doppler effect to understand the universe by determining the motion of the object.
Doppler effect: It is the phenomenon in which there is relative motion between the source and listener or source or observer.
Red shift and blue shift can be explained by using the concept of Doppler effect.
From red shift and blue shift, one can conclude that galaxies or stars are moving towards us or going away from us.
The light is shifted to longer wavelength which is red in the case of red shift. The light is shifted to shorter wavelength which is blue in the case of blue shift.
Therefore, "the approximate size of a galaxy can be measured by using the Doppler effect", the given statement is false.
In short, Your Answer would be "False"
Hope this helps!
more than 50% but less than 100%
50%
less than 50% but more than 0%
100%
Answers
Answer:
50% if light is unpolarized
100% if light is horizontally polarized
0% if light is vertically polarized
Explanation:
A polarizer has an axis that "blocks" the component of light in the direction perpendicular to the direction of the polarizer axis.
When unpolarized light passes through a polarizer, the intensity of light is reduced to , where
is the initial intensity of the light: this is because only the component of the light parallel to the axis of the polarizer will pass through, and this component makes 1/2 of the incident light intensity. In this case, since the axis of the polarizer is horizontal, only the horizontal component of the light will pass through, while the vertical component will be blocked. So in this case the final intensity will be 50% of the initial one.
On the other hand, if the incoming light is already horizontally polarized (same orientation as the polarizers), there is no vertical component to block, so all the light passes through the polarizer; therefore, the final intensity will be 100% of the original intensity.
Finally, if the incoming light is vertically polarized, no light will pass through it, because the polarizer's axis is horizontal, so it will block all the vertically polarized light: so the final intensity will be 0% of the original intensity.
All of this is after passing the 1st polarizer; so, after passing the 1st polarizer, the light is now horizontally polarized. Then, the intensity of the light passing through the 2nd polarizer is given by Malus' Law:
where is the angle between the axes of the two polarizers. Since here the two polarizers axes are parallel to each other,
, so
, and so the intensity after the 2nd polarizer is exactly the same as the intensity after the 1st polarizer.
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
The sensor contains an LDR which has a resistance of 10kohlms in daylight and 100kohlms in the dark.
If the resistor in the circuit is 1 megaohlm, the total resistance in daylight and darkness will be 1.01 megaohms and 1.1 megaohlms.
The percentage difference = (1.1-1.01)/1.1*100% = 8.18%
If the resistor in the circuit is 25 kohlm, the total resistance in daylight and darkness will be 35 kohms and 125 kohlms.
The percentage difference = (125-35)/125*100% = 72%
With the input p.d to the sensing circuit fixed at 12 v, the sensing current will change according to the total resistance. A 72% difference is much more detectable. So the 25 kohm resistor is the better choice.
Answer:
Explanation:
V=IR
I=12/(R of resistor + R of LDR)
R of LDR = 10kohm in light and = 100kohm in dark
R1 = 25kohm
R2 = 1Mohm
solve 4 current
light dark
R1 12/(25+10)=0.343mA 12/(25+100)=0.096mA
R2 12/(1000+10)=0.012mA 12/(1000+100)=0.011mA
so R1 is better as its easier 2 tell its light or dark
Answers
Answer: 8 m
Explanation:
From the equation distance = velocity * time, we can find the distance from a velocity vs. time graph by finding the area under the curve, since we get that area from multiplying velocity and time together.
For the first 0.5 seconds, the velocity is 16 m/s and the change in time is 0.5.
16 * 0.5 = 8 m.
Learn more about the relationship between distance and velocity here: brainly.com/question/29409777
Answers
We know that there is a formula velocity = frequency x wavelength for all types of waves.
If we assume one complete oscillation of a pendulum to be wavelength we can apply the above formula for the pendulum too.
So as v = fλ and f = v/λ we can just plug in the values to get our answer of frequency.
So frequency = 30/0.35 which is equal to 85.17 Hertz (Hz).
I think you're trying to take the formulas for speed, wavelength, and
frequency of a wave, and apply them to a pendulum. You can't do that.
It doesn't work.
A pendulum is moving in 'simple harmonic motion', not wave motion.
It's speed is continuously changing, from zero at both ends of its swing,
to maximum as it passes through the 'rest' position at the bottom. And
there's no wavelength defined for a pendulum ... if you're thinking that
it could be the distance from end to end of its swing, or maybe half of
that, you should know that the frequency of an ideal simple pendulum
is not related to that distance at all.
Finally, in the real world, the numbers in this question really kind of
don't make any sense. You have a structure where some part of it is
roughly a foot long (0.35m = 13.8 inches), and at least at some point
during its swing, something is moving at 30 m/s ... about 67 mph !
If something like that could even stay on the table, and IF its frequency
were (speed/wavelength) ... like a wave's frequency is ... then its frequency
would be (30 / 0.35) = 85.7 Hz ! ! The thing would be wiggling back and
forth every 0.017 second ! It would need to be operated only inside
a bomb shelter, with all personnel withdrawn beyond a safe perimeter
before it flies apart and scatters shrapnel everywhere.
29 million people in the U.S.
Horsepower= 746 W
The above is the info you will need. This is what I have done so far, but it can NOT be right:
98.3*10^15Btu/year(1 year/365 days) = 0.269315*10^15 Btu/day (0.269315*10^15Btu/day)/291 million = (0.2693*10^15 Btu/day)/291*10^6 ~0.00092548109*10^5 Btu/day = 925,481.09Btu/day
925,481.09Btu/day*(1day/24hour) = 38561.71 Btu/hour ~ 38561.7Btu/hour
1horsepower = 746 W
1 W = 3.412Btu/hr38561.7Btu/hr*(1 W/3.412 Btu/hr) ~ 11301.3 W*(1 hp/746 W) = 15.149 hp
Answers
The more I have worked on this, the stranger it has become.
First ... I didn't know what 'QBTU' means. But I see that you called it
' 10¹⁵ ' so I guess it's 'quadrillion'.
Next ... your given data says 29 million people in the US, and that's
ridiculous. Right now it's about 319 million. It was 290 million in 2002,
and I see that you used 291 million, so that looks like it was a typo.
No problem.
Now . . . I did it 3 or 4 times using that 3.412 BTU/hr = 1 watt . I did get
the significant figures of 152, but I kept getting either 152 HP or 0.152 HP.
At this point, I traced through your solution ... thank you very much for
posting it ... and I'm going to take your colossal load of points for saying
that I I did go through every step in detail, I agree 100% with everything
I see there, and I endorse every move you made.
So up to now, we both agree that we cannot see where 1.5 HP/person
comes from.
I looked back to the conversion factors, and I saw something that could
make the arithmetic less complex: 1 BTU = 1,055 Joules
Look what I can do with that:
(98.3 x 10¹⁵ BTU/yr) x (1,055 joule/BTU) x
(yr/365 day) x (day/86,400sec) x
(HP/746 joule-sec) = 4.4082 x 10⁹ HP
then . . .
(4.4082 x 10⁹ HP) / (29.1 x 10⁷ people) = 15.15 HP/person
I'd say that your work, using the given data, has been vindicated by
an outside, independent consultant. It may not be a true statistic, but
your math is bullet-proof, and the data have been properly implemented.