the answer is attached below
Answer:
the difference in the means is not significant
Step-by-step explanation:
Let’s begin first by finding the difference between the means of the 2 groups.
Difference in means = 95% - 92% = 3% Now let’s look at the line plot of the 10 rerandomizations. On that plot, 4 of the randomizations have a difference of 3.
Probability of having a difference of 3 = 4 / 10 *100% = 40%
So just by mixing up the scores from both classes and finding the difference between the mean of 2 randomly defined groups, there was a difference of 3 between the 2 means in 40% of the trials.
Since this probability is so large, the difference in the means is not significant. The line plot shows that it would be very likely that the difference in the means is just due to random chance
thank you!!!!!
A.
z = –42
B.
z = –34
C.
z = –30
D.
z = 42