Answer:
1. Which firm has a greater FCF (free cash flow)?
2. What is firm A’s (annual) tax shield?
3. What is firm B’s (annual) tax shield?
Explanation:
since firm A's debt is $20, its value is $100, then its equity = $80
since firm B's debt is $80, its value is $100, then its equity = $20
Firm A's cash flow = (EBIT - interest expense) x (1 - tax rate) = [$10 - ($20 x 10%)] x 0.6 = $4.80
Firm B's cash flow = (EBIT - interest expense) x (1 - tax rate) = [$10 - ($80 x 10%)] x 0.6 = $1.20
Firm A's annual tax shield = taxable interest x tax rate = ($20 x 10%) x 40% = $0.80
Firm B's annual tax shield = taxable interest x tax rate = ($80 x 10%) x 40% = $3.20
Firm B has a greater FCF compared to Firm A. Firm A has a tax shield of $0, and Firm B has a tax shield of $3.2.
1. Firm B has a greater Free Cash Flow (FCF) compared to Firm A. FCF is calculated as EBIT(1-TC) + TC(D-RD), and in this case, Firm B has a higher outstanding debt which leads to a higher tax shield, resulting in a greater FCF for Firm B.
2. Firm A's annual tax shield can be calculated by subtracting the debt payments from the earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) and then multiplying the result by the tax rate. In this case, the annual tax shield for Firm A is $0, as the interest expense is greater than the taxable income.
3. Firm B's annual tax shield can be calculated in the same way as Firm A's. In this case, the annual tax shield for Firm B is $3.2. This is because the debt payments are lower than the taxable income and result in a tax shield.
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Answer: $7,000
Explanation:
Section 1245 property refers to property that either could depreciate or has depreciated or been amortized showing that it refers to both tangible and intangible assets.
If this asset is sold and there is a gain, the amount of the gain that is taxable as ordinary income is the amount up to the amount of depreciation.
As there has been a gain in this sale because the sales price is more than the purchase price and the Depreciation is $7,000, that is the amount that will be taxable as ordinary income.
Answer:
FINANCING LEASE.
trailer 600,000 debit
lease liability 479,825 credit
cash 120,175 credit
--to record Jan 1st entry--
interest expense 38,386 debit
lease liability 81,789 credit
cash 120,175 credit
--to record Dec 31st entry--
Explanation:
The lease is for more than half of the asset useful life. Also, it has a present value equal to the fair value of the trailer. Also, ownership is acquired at the end of the lease life.
To build the schedule we calculate the interest on the principal
then, we subtract that from the installment to get the principal amortization and solve for the remaining at year-end
we repeat this procedure during the life of the lease.
Jan 1st, 2021
the journal entries will recognize the lease liability, the cash from the first payment, and the trailers received
Dec 31st, 2021
Here we must recognize the interest expense as well as the decrease in the lease liability.
Answer:
Total expected cash collections for May are $24554
Explanation:
The May's cash collections will include collections from March's credit sales worth 15% of March's sales, collections for April's credit sales worth 25% of April's credit sales and collections worth 55% of t=May's credit sales. Thus the collections are,
Collection for March's sales = 12764 * 0.15 = $1914.6
Collection for April's sales = 27406 * 0.25 = $6851.5
Collection for May's sales = 28706 * 0.55 = $15788.3
Total expected cash collections for May = 1914.6 + 6851.5 + 15788.3
Total expected cash collections for May = $24554.4 rounded off to $24554
Original purchase cost $15,230 $25,080
Accumulated depreciation $ 6,800 _
Estimated annual operating costs $24,950 $19,560
Useful life 5 years 5 years
If sold now, the current machine would have a salvage value of $8,490. If operated for the remainder of its useful life, the current machine would have zero salvage value. The new machine is expected to have zero salvage value after 5 years.
Prepare an incremental analysis. (Enter negative amounts using either a negative sign preceding the number e.g. -45 or parentheses e.g. (45).)
Answer:
The incremental cost is ($10,360)
Explanation:
Analysis of total cost over the 5 year period
Retain Old Machine Buy New Machine
Variable / Incremental Operating
Costs
Old Machine 124,750
New Machine 97,800
Old Machine Book Value
Retain: Annual depreciation 8,430
Buy : Lump sum written off 8,430
Old Machine Disposal (8,490)
Purchase Cost of New Machine 25,080
Total Cost 133,180 122,820
The use of new machine will result in lower cost for the next 5 years.The incremental cost is ($10,360)
Answer:
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Answer:
The optimal stocking level is 45 muffins.
Explanation:
First we have to calculate the Overage cost Co = Purchase price - Salvage value = $0.2 - 0 = $0.2
Then the Underage cost Cu = Selling price - Purchase price =$0.80 - $0.2 = $0.60
Service level = Cu / (Cu + Co) = $0.60/($0.60+$0.2) = $0.75
Hence, optimal stocking level = Minimum demand + Service level *(Maximum demand - Minimum demand)
optimal stocking level = 30 + 0.75*(50-30) = 45
The optimal stocking level is 45 muffins.
Optimal stocking level = 68.75 Muffins