Answer:
what is the Question
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
0.5 = 50% probability that he or she is not in any of the language classes.
Step-by-step explanation:
We treat the number of students in each class as Venn sets.
I am going to say that:
Set A: Spanish class
Set B: French class
Set C: German class
We start building these sets from the intersection of the three.
In addition, there are 2 students taking all 3 classes.
This means that:
6 that are in both French and German
This means that:
So
4 French and German, but not Spanish.
4 that are in both Spanish and German
This means that:
So
2 Spanish and German, but not French
12 students that are in both Spanish and French
This means that:
So
10 Spanish and French, but not German
16 in the German class.
This means that:
8 in only German.
26 in the French class
10 only French
28 students in the Spanish class
14 only Spanish
At least one of them:
The sum of all the above values. So
None of them:
100 total students, so:
(a) If a student is chosen randomly, what is the probability that he or she is not in any of the language classes?
50 out of 100. So
50/100 = 0.5 = 50% probability that he or she is not in any of the language classes.
(10z-3)2
Answer:
20z-6
Step-by-step explanation:
Distribute the 2 to each of the numbers inside the parentheses.
10z and -3 are the two numbers, each multiplied by 2 is 20z and -6. No further simplification is possible
Here we will show you step-by-step with detailed explanation how to calculate 48 divided by 32 using long division.
Before you continue, note that in the problem 48 divided by 32, the numbers are defined as follows:
48 = dividend
32 = divisor
Step 1:
Start by setting it up with the divisor 32 on the left side and the dividend 48 on the right side like this:
3 2 ⟌ 4 8
Step 2:
The divisor (32) goes into the first digit of the dividend (4), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:
0
3 2 ⟌ 4 8
Step 3:
Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (32 x 0 = 0) and write that answer below the dividend.
0
3 2 ⟌ 4 8
0
Step 4:
Subtract the result in the previous step from the first digit of the dividend (4 - 0 = 4) and write the answer below.
0
3 2 ⟌ 4 8
- 0
4
Step 5:
Move down the 2nd digit of the dividend (8) like this:
0
3 2 ⟌ 4 8
- 0
4 8
Step 6:
The divisor (32) goes into the bottom number (48), 1 time(s). Therefore, put 1 on top:
0 1
3 2 ⟌ 4 8
- 0
4 8
Step 7:
Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (32 x 1 = 32) and write that answer at the bottom:
0 1
3 2 ⟌ 4 8
- 0
4 8
3 2
Step 8:
Subtract the result in the previous step from the number written above it. (48 - 32 = 16) and write the answer at the bottom.
0 1
3 2 ⟌ 4 8
- 0
4 8
- 3 2
1 6
You are done, because there are no more digits to move down from the dividend.
The answer is the top number and the remainder is the bottom number.
Therefore, the answer to 48 divided by 32 calculated using Long Division is:
1
16 Remainder
2
-2
5
Answer:
0
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
answer : 3 years ago
Step-by-step explanation:
Let x years ago.
59−x=7(11−x)
59−x=77−7x
6x=18
x=3
=3 years ago
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
sorry about my last text but the answer is you must divide 6.25 by 20.6 then find the equation that matches the answer.