Please find full question attached
Answer and Explanation:
I will use Apple and HP in this comparison.Here I would compare Apple's laptop to that of Hewlet Packard as this is where they meet in the industry. Apple employs a strategy of differentiation and standing out in competition through their products. They aim to create products that are quite different and unique/innovative from other products in the market, and yet what the customer wants. In doing this, Apple has a trade-off for cost as they charge alot higher for their products than their competitors. HP on the other hand focus on making the best possible products that get the job done/meet the needs of customers while also being affordable. HP is more focused on affordable devices for their market and therefore have a different market segment for laptops from that of Apple. There is a trade-off for cost and market segment in this comparison
Direct Labor Hours: 600,000 550,000
Manufacturing Overhead Estimated $720,000 $680,000
Answer:
Underapplied overhead= $20,000
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Estimated Actual
Direct Labor Hours: 600,000 550,000
Manufacturing Overhead Estimated $720,000 $680,000
I assume that we need to calculate the over/under applied overhead.
First, we need to determine the predetermined overhead rate:
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 720,000/600,000
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $1.2 per direct labor hour
Now, we apply overhead based on actual hours:
Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base
Allocated MOH= 1.2*550,000
Allocated MOH= $660,000
Finally, the under/over applied overhead:
Under/over applied overhead= real overhead - allocated overhead
Under/over applied overhead= 680,000 - 660,000
Underapplied overhead= $20,000
Answer: $6000
Explanation:
If holding is $10000,
Reduction in cash holding = (10000-10000) = 0
Interest earned in government bonds=(Reduction in holdings) × 0.03 =0
Cost of deposits = 0
Additional benefit = (interest earned - cost of deposit)
Additional benefit = 0-0 = 0
Making a mid day deposit;
Reduction in cash holding = (10000-8000) = $2000
Interest earned in government bonds = Reduction in holdings × 0.03
= 2000 × 0.03 =$60
Cost of deposits=$80
Additional benefit=$60-80=-$20
Using a armored car service;
Reduction in cash holding=(10000-6000)=4000
Interest earned in government bonds= 4000 × 0.03 = $120
Cost of deposits=$120
Additional benefit=120 - 120= $0
Using computerized cash management service;
Reduction in cash holding=(10000-4000)=6000
Interest earned in government bonds;
6000 × 0.03 = $180
Cost of deposits=$180
Additional benefit=180 - 180=$0
Additional benefit is maximized in case of both computerized management service and armor vehicle . So, Optimal cash holding is $6000
Answer:
Direct Labor Rate Variance = $950
Direct Labor Efficiency Variance = $600
Total Direct Labor Spending Variance = $1,550
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Standard labor cost per unit = $12
Direct labor hours = 1,900
Actual Direct labor paid = $21,850
Units sold during the month = 1,950
Standard rate, SR = $12
Now,
Actual rate per unit, AR = $21,850 ÷ 1,900
= $11.5
Direct Labor Rate Variance = ( SR - AR ) × Actual hours
= ( $12 - $11.5 ) × 1900
= $950 ( Favourable )
Direct Labor Efficiency Variance = ( Standard hours - Actual hour ) × SR
= ( 1950 - 1900 ) × $12
= $600 ( favourable )
Total Direct Labor Spending Variance = Standard cost - actual cost
= ( 1950 × 12 ) - 21,850
= $1,550 (favourable )
To calculate the direct labor rate variance, multiply the standard labor rate per hour by the actual labor hours and subtract the actual labor cost. To calculate the efficiency variance, multiply the standard labor rate per unit by the difference between the actual units produced and the standard units allowed. To calculate the spending variance, multiply the standard labor rate per unit by the difference between the actual labor cost and the budgeted labor cost.
To calculate the direct labor rate variance, we multiply the standard labor rate per hour by the actual labor hours and subtract the actual labor cost. In this case, the standard labor rate per unit is $12, so the actual labor rate is $12. To calculate the efficiency variance, we multiply the standard labor rate per unit by the difference between the actual units produced and the standard units allowed. In this case, the standard units allowed is 1,900 and the actual units produced is 1,950. To calculate the spending variance, we multiply the standard labor rate per unit by the difference between the actual labor cost and the budgeted labor cost. In this case, the budgeted labor cost is $12 per hour and the actual labor cost is $21,850.
#SPJ11
Market economic system
Answer:
See the explanation below:
Explanation:
a- Calculate ROE and EPS under each of the economic scenarios before any debt is issued.
Under an expansion
Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) = $23,000 * (100% + 20%) = $27,600
Earnings after taxes = $27,600 * (100% - 35%) = $17,940
Return on equity (ROE) = Earnings after taxes / Total market value of equity = $17,940 / $180,000 =
0.0997, or 9.97%
Earnings per share (EPS) = Earnings after taxes / Number of shares of stock outstanding = $17,940 /
6,000 = $2.99 per share
Under a recession
Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) = $23,000 * (100% - 30%) = $16,100
Earnings after taxes = $16,100 * (100% - 35%) = $10,465
Return on equity (ROE) = Earnings after taxes / Total market value of equity = $10,465 / $180,000 =
0.0581, or 5.81%
Earnings per share (EPS) = Earnings after taxes / Number of shares of stock outstanding = $10,465 /
6,000 = $1.74 per share
b- Repeat part a, assuming that the company goes through with the capitalization.
Under an expansion
Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) = $23,000 * (100% + 20%) = $27,600
Interest on debt = $75,000 * 7% = $5,250
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Earnings after interest = $27,600 - $5,250 = $22,350
Earnings after taxes = $22,350 * (100% - 35%) = $14,527.50
Return on equity (ROE) = Earnings after taxes / Total market value of equity = $14,527.50/ $180,000 =
0.0807, or 8.07%
Earnings per share (EPS) = Earnings after taxes / Number of shares of stock outstanding = $14,527.50 /
6,000 = $2.42 per share
Under a recession
Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) = $23,000 * (100% - 30%) = $16,100
Interest on debt = $75,000 * 7% = $5,250
Earnings after interest = $16,100 - $5,250 = $10,850
Earnings after taxes = $10,850 * (100% - 35%) = $7,052.50
Return on equity (ROE) = Earnings after taxes / Total market value of equity = $7,052.50 / $180,000 =
0.0392, or 3.92%
Earnings per share (EPS) = Earnings after taxes / Number of shares of stock outstanding = $7,052.50 /
6,000 = $1.18 per share
c- Calculate the percentage changes in EPS when the economy expands or enters a recession.
Percentage change under expansion = ($2.42 - $2.99)/$2.99 = 0.1902 decrease, or 19.02% decrease.
Percentage change under recession = ($1.18 - $1.74)/ $1.74 = 0.3218 decrease, or 32.18% decrease
Answer: Demand will fall, Interest rates will fall
Explanation:
The investment tax credit would have encouraged more companies to seek loanable funds in order to embark on investment opportunities because they would be taxed less. This increase in demand in the market for loanable funds would have led to rates rising to keep up with demand.
If Congress were to end this credit, the incentive to invest and avoid tax would be gone. Companies would therefore demand less loanable funds and with this drop in demand there will be a drop in interest rates as well to entice people to borrow at the lower rates.