Answer:
Price of stock = $44.05
Explanation:
The price of a share can be calculated using the dividend valuation model
According to this model the value of share is equal to the sum of the present values of its future cash dividends discounted at the required rate of return.
To determine the price of the stock to , we calculate the present value for each of the dividend payable for the next five years and then sum them.
The formula below would help
PV = G× (1+r)^(-n)
PV = Present Value, r required rate of return - 10%, n- the year, G- dividend payable in a particular year
Year PV of dividend
1 2+6 ×× 1.1^-1 = 7.27
2 10 × 1.1^-2 = 8.26
3 12× 1.1^-3 = 9.02
4 14 × 1.1^-4 =9.56
5 16 × 1.1^-5 = 9.93
Total Present Value of dividend = 7.27+ 8.26 +9.02 +9.56 +9.93 = 44.05
Price of stock = $44.05
Maurer, inc.,has an odd dividend policy. The company has just paid a dividend of $2 per share and has announced that it will increase the dividend by $6 per share for each of the next five years, and then never pay another dividend. If yoy require a return of 10 percent on the company's stock, how much will you pay for a share today?
Answer:
Price of stock = $44.05
Explanation:
The price of a share can be calculated using the dividend valuation model
According to this model the value of share is equal to the sum of the present values of its future cash dividends discounted at the required rate of return.
To determine the price of the stock to , we calculate the present value for each of the dividend payable for the next five years and then sum them.
The formula below would help
PV = G× (1+r)^(-n)
PV = Present Value, r required rate of return - 10%, n- the year, G- dividend payable in a particular year
Year PV of dividend
1 2+6 ×× 1.1^-1 = 7.27
2 10 × 1.1^-2 = 8.26
3 12× 1.1^-3 = 9.02
4 14 × 1.1^-4 =9.56
5 16 × 1.1^-5 = 9.93
Total Present Value of dividend = 7.27+ 8.26 +9.02 +9.56 +9.93 = 44.05
Price of stock = $44.05
Answer:
Results are below.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Future value= $3,000
Number of periods= 15 years
I will assume an interest rate of 8% compounded annually.
To calculate the present value (PV), we need to use the following formula:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 3,000/1.08^15
PV= $945.73
b. False
Answer:
The statement is false.
Explanation:
As the market value of the stock depends upon the industry risk, political, economical, technological, etc factors and also largely depends upon the business performance which is the profits generated by the organization and its cashflow health. So higher par value has nothing to do with higher market value. Hence the statement is totally incorrect.
Answer:
PV= $2,106.18
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Annual payment= $500
Number of periods= 5 years
Interest rate= 6%
To calculate the present value, first, we need to determine the future value:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual payment
FV= {500*[(1.06^5) - 1]} / 0.06
FV= $2,818.55
Now, the present value:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 2,818.55/1.06^5
PV= $2,106.18
The present value of a $500 payment received at the end of each of the next five years at an appropriate discount rate of 6 percent is approximately $2,106.
The question you asked involves the concept of calculating the present value of a series of future payments, also known as an annuity. The present value of an annuity can be determined using the formula:
PV = PMT * [(1 - (1 + r)^-n)/r]
where 'PV' is the present value, 'PMT' is the periodic payment, 'r' is the discount rate (as a decimal), and 'n' is the number of periods.
Plugging in the values from your question we get:
PV = 500 * [(1 - (1 + 0.06)^-5) /0.06]
This will give us the present value of the cash flows. Thus, the present value for a $500 payment received at the end of each of the next five years, worth to you today at the appropriate discount rate of 6 percent is $2,106.
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b.$113,300.
c.$83,839.
d.$198,339.
e.$68,970.
Answer:
a.$16,370.
Explanation:
beginning WIP cost: 11,100
cost added during the period
materials 77,100
direct labor 25,100
overhead 70% of DL = 17,570
total added 119,770
Total cost to be accounted for: 130,870
Cost assignned to
transferred out 114,500
ending WIP 16.370
Total cost assigned to 130,870
As the cost to be accounted and the cost assigned to should match we contruct that and solve for the ending WIP
Answer:
Direct labor rate variance= $12,575 unfavorable
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Last year, the company’s direct labor payroll totaled $352,100 for 50,300 direct labor hours. The standard wage rate is $6.75 per direct labor hour.
To calculate the direct labor rate variance, we need to use the following formula:
Direct labor rate variance= (Standard Rate - Actual Rate)*Actual Quantity
Actual rate= 352,100/50,300= $7 per hour
Direct labor rate variance= (6.75 - 7)*50,300
Direct labor rate variance= $12,575 unfavorable
b. She received $7,000 of interest income from corporate bonds she received several years ago. This is her only source of income. She is 16 years old at year-end.
c. She received $7,000 of interest income from corporate bonds she received several years ago. This is her only source of income. She is 20 years old at year-end and is a full-time student. (Do not round intermediate calculations.)
d. She received $7,000 of qualified dividend income. This is her only source of income. She is 16 years old at year-end
Answer
The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.
Step-by-step explanation:
You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.