Answer and Explanation:
According to the given situation, when the amount of splishy splashies decrease by 5%, quantity of frizzles increases by 4%.
So, The cross price elasticity of frizzles relative to splishy splashies = Percentage change in quantity demand for frizzles ÷ Percentage change in price for splishy splashies
= 4 ÷ -5
= -0.80
Now,
Cross-price elasticity between splishy splashies and kipples = Percentage change in quantity demand for Kipples ÷ Percentage change in price for splishy splashies
= -6% ÷ -5%
= 1.20
b. Since there is negative cross-price elasticity between splishy splashies and frizzles, these products are complementary.
The elasticity of the cross-price between splendid splashies and kipples is positive, these goods being substitutes.
c. Here, I would therefore recommend Raskels marketing, since these two are used together.
The required Table are as shown below:-
Particulars Cross-Price Elasticity Complements Recommended
of Demand or Substitute Marketing with
splishy splashies
Frizzles 0.80 Complements Yes
Kipples 1.20 Substitute No
b.Efficient use of housing space results.
c.Nonprice methods of rationing emerge.
d.The quantity of available rental housing units falls.
Answer: C) and D) answers.
Explanation: The rental market must have a free operation, that is, supply and demand have to set their price level, especially since, in this case, the product is not fungible, that is, it is not interchangeable. Each floor varies in location, number of square meters, construction qualities, etc. You cannot set a fixed reference price. Another of the most repeated consequences by experts is that the limitation will cause a reduction in supply, but demand will not go down, which will necessarily lead to greater tension in rental prices.
Answer: Money multiplier is 12.50
Explanation: Money Multiplier is the amount of cash to be reserved.
It is calculated thus: 1/r where r is the rate
= 1/0.08= 12.50
Increasing the reserve ration will decrease the multiplier.
Answer:
Dr interest expense $7,000
Dr notes payable $7,238
Cr cash $14,238
Explanation:
The first task is to compute interest expense on the loan in year 1 which is shown below:
interest expense=$100,000*7%
interest expense=$7,000
Principal repayment=repayment-interest repayment
Principal repayment=$14,238-$7,000=$7,238
The double entries are to debit interest expense and notes payable with $7,000 and $7,238 respectively while cash is credited with $14,238 as an outflow of cash.
Answer:
1.267 = Overhead Rate
Explanation:
As general approach, the manufacturing rate, along with any rate is done by dividing the cost by a cost driver.
In this case teh cost is the manufacturing overhead and the cost driver the direct materials cost:
Using Direct Materials cost, the rate would be:
B) the strategic fit test, the resource fit test, and the profitability test.
C) the barrier-to-entry test, the growth test, and the shareholder value test.
D) the attractiveness test, the cost-of-entry test, and the better-off test.
E) the resource fit test, the strategic fit test, the profitability test, and the shareholder value test.
Answer:
D) the attractiveness test, the cost-of-entry test, and the better-off test.
Explanation:
To judge a diversification change, an organization needs to pass the attractiveness tests, the entry cost test and the best situation test.
These tests will be decisive to analyze the potential that diversification will have to create added value for the shareholder.
The attractiveness test will list the ability that the market has to ensure that there is a safe return on investments.
The cost-of-entry will aim to ensure that when entering a new sector, the organization does not have higher costs that can influence the generation of profitability.
Finally, the better-off test will analyze whether the planned diversification will be so profitable that it will help to improve the performance of the integration of organizational businesses.
Answer:
OPTION d
Explanation:
Answer:
For this calculation we need to use the Effective Annual Yield Formula.
EY = (1 + r/n)^n - 1
Where:
Plugging the amounts into the formula we obtain:
EY = (1 + 0.06/2)^2 - 1
EY = 0.062
EY = 6.2%
To obtain the effective semi-annual yield, we simply divide the effective annual yield by two:
= 0.062/2
=0.031
Effective semi-annual yield = 3.1%
In this case, we would not invest in the bond because the effective semi-annual yield does not reach the required 4%.
Explanation: