b. For what amount of weekly sales us plan B better than plan A?
Answer:
a)
Expression for plan A:
Total weekly earnings =
Expression for plan B:
Total weekly earnings =
b)
As long as is less than 1000 plan B is profitable.
Step-by-step explanation:
a)
Expression for plan A:
Total weekly earnings =
Expression for plan B:
Total weekly earnings =
b)
For plan B to be better the amount earned by plan B for a specific number of sales should be greater than amount earned by plan A.
Therefore, we can write the following inequality:
Now we can simplify the above inequality to find at which value of it will be profitable to used plan B.
So as long as is less than 1000 plan B is profitable.
Expression A: S= 100+ 100(0.15y) y=Commission
Expression B: S= 150+ 150(0.10y)
Now to get Part B done. Plug in numbers for Y and use the results as the sales continue to increases. For example, start with 5 sales, then go to 10 then 15, and so on and so fourth. Hope I was able help you understand the question a little bit more! :)
The vector magnitude is 10.29lb and the vector direction is 150.9⁰.
As per the given question:
To find:
magnitude and direction=?
Solution:
Vector representation of the given value:
Calculating the vector magnitude:
Calculating the vector direction:
When
Let's solve the value for
lies in the second quadrant,
Find out more information about the angle here:
in a given training week a swimmer completes 1/4 mile on day one 2/5 mile on day two and 3/7 mile on day three,, how many total miles does the athlete swim in the given week
Step-by-step explanation:
We’ll have to add up all the fractions.
First, find the LCM of the denominators.
To do this, we’ll use the listing method.
4: 4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, 28, 32, 36, all the way to 140.
5: 5, 10, 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, all the way to 140.
7: 7, 14, 21, 28, 35, 42, 49, all the way to 140.
So, 140 is the Least Common Multiple.
Multiply the numerator of 1 as many times you multiplied 4 to get to 140, which is 35.
1 x 35 = 35.
Multiply the numerator of 2 as many times you multiplied 5 to get to 140, which is 28.
2 x 28 = 56
Multiply the numerator of 3 as many times you multiplied 7 to get to 140, which is 20.
3 x 20 = 60.
So: 35/140 + 56/140 + 60/140
=35/140 + 116/140
=151/140
=1 11/140
So, the swimmer swam 1 and 11/140th of a mile.
y=-x^2-2x+7
The product of the fraction is 8/25. Option C is correct
To multiply these fractions, you can follow these steps:
Multiply the numerators (top numbers) together.
Multiply the denominators (bottom numbers) together.
Here's how it's done:
(4/9) x (1 & 4/5) x (2/5)
Step 1: Multiply the numerators:
(4/9) x (9/5) x (2/5)
Step 2: Multiply the denominators:
(4/9) x (9/5) x (2/5) = (4 x 9 x 2)/(9 x 5 x 5)
Now, calculate the result:
(4 x 9 x 2)/(9 x 5 x 5) = 72/225
To simplify the fraction, find the greatest common divisor (GCD) of 72 and 225, which is 9:
(72 ÷ 9)/(225 ÷ 9) = 8/25
Hence the product of the fraction is 8/25
Learn more on fraction here: brainly.com/question/11562149
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The squeegee passes by the other window washer in ____ seconds to the nearest tenth.
seconds. If necessary, round your answer
Answer:
The squeegee passes by the other window washer in 3.9 seconds to the nearest tenth
Step-by-step explanation:
From the question,
The first person drops a squeegee from a height of 95 feet, to determine how long it takes the squeegee to pass by another person at a height of 20 feet, that is, we are to determine how long it will take the squeegee to travel a height distance of 95 feet - 20 feet
95 feet - 20 feet = 75 feet.
Hence, we are to determine how long it will take the squeegee to travel a height distance of 75 feet.
From one of the equations of motion due to free fall
h = ut + 1/2gt²
Where h is the height
u is the initial velocity
g is the acceleration due to gravity (Take g = 9.8 m/s²)
and t is the time
For the question,
h = 75 feet
u = 0 m/s ( Since the squeegee is dropped from rest)
Therefore
75 = 0(t) + 1/2(9.8)(t²)
75 = 4.9t²
∴ t² = 75/4.9
t² = 15.306
t =√15.306
t = 3.9 secs
Hence,
The squeegee passes by the other window washer in 3.9 seconds to the nearest tenth.
Using the kinematic equations for free fall, we find that it takes approximately 2.2 seconds for the squeegee to pass by the other window washer working at a height of 20 feet.
The question is related to the subject of physics and involves the free fall motion of an object under the influence of gravity. We can use the kinematic equations to solve for the time it takes for the squeegee to pass the window washer working at 20 feet.
The initial height h0 from which the squeegee was dropped is 95 feet, and the height h where the other window washer is located is 20 feet. Therefore, we are interested in the time it will take the squeegee to cover the distance d = h0 - h, which equals 75 feet.
Assuming acceleration due to gravity g is approximately 32.2 feet per second squared (in the downward direction), and initial velocity u is 0 since the squeegee is dropped, we can use the formula to find the time t.
Plugging in the values, we get:
To the nearest tenth, it takes the squeegee approximately 2.2 seconds to pass by the other window washer.
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