Answer:
The correct option is D (all of the above)
Explanation:
Opportunity cost is the rate of return which can be earned from the next best alternative investment opportunity with similar risk profile. Also the meaning of opportunity cost doesnt change only the factors do.
This concept is not as simple as it may first appear. The person making the decision must estimate the variability of returns on the alternative investments through the period during which the cash is expected to be used.
It opens one of the current worksheets into a new window.
It opens a blank workbook.
It opens a new side-by-side window of an existing workbook.
Answer:
It opens one of the current worksheets into a new window.
Answer:
It opens one of the current worksheets into a new window.
Explanation:
edge 2020 lesson-managing workbook properties
Answer:
1.88 years
Explanation:
Payback period is the time in which a project returns back the initial investment. Initial Investment is recovered within the first two annual Cash inflows.
Payback Period = 1+0.88 = 1.88 years
All the working are made in the MS Excel File attached with this answer, pleas find it.
Answer:
The discounted payback period is 1.88 years
Explanation:
The discounted pay back period is the number of years it takes for the investment to break even by this it means how many years it takes discounted cash flows to pay the initial investment.
Initial Investment $6,600
W e then discount the cash inflows to find the time it takes to pay off initial investment
Year 1 = 3900/ (1.15) =$3,391.30
Remainder of initial investment = -6600+3391.30= -3,208.7
Year two = 4800/ 1.15^2 = $3,629.49
Remainder of initial investment = -3208.7-3629.49 = 420.79
This yield positive results therefore the discounted payback period is sometime between year 1 and year 2.
To get the exact period we take what reamined over what paid
3208.7/3629.49 = 0.88
So it 1 year + 0.88 =1.88 years
Answer:
1) a. $13,857 : b. $15,676 : c. $10,161
Explanation:
(a) Straight-line depreciation:
depreciation expense per year = ($147,000 - $50,000) / 7 = $13,857 per year
(b) 150% declining balance depreciation:
150% depreciation = 1/7 x 1.5 = 21.42%
depreciation expense year 1 = $147,000 x 1/7 x 1.5 = $31,500
depreciation expense year 2 = $115,500 x 1/7 x 1.5 = $24,750
depreciation expense year 3 = $90,750 x 1/7 x 1.5 = $19,446
depreciation expense year 4 = $71,304 x 1/7 x 1.5 = $15,279 (this number is similar to $15,676, so I will choose that number. Depreciation % may vary a little due to rounding)
(c) 40% bonus depreciation with the balance using 5-year MACRS:
depreciation expense year 1 = $147,000 x 40% = $58,800
depreciation expense year 2 = $88,200 x 32% = $28,224
depreciation expense year 3 = $88,200 x 19.20% = $16,934
depreciation expense year 4 = $88,200 x 11.52% = $10,161
Answer:
Price Elastic
Explanation:
We know that
The formula to compute the price elasticity of demand is shown below:
= (Percentage change in quantity demanded) ÷ (percentage change in price)
The classification as follows
1. Perfectly inelastic = If zero
2. Inelastic = When elasticity is below than one
3. Unitary elastic = When elasticity is equal to one
4. Elastic = When elasticity is exceeded than one
5. Perfectly elastic = When elasticity is in infinity
Since the percentage change in the quantity demanded of a good is greater than the percentage change in the price of the good which reflects that the elasticity is more than one
Answer:
The demand is price elastic in nature because it is greater than 1.
Explanation:
Price Elasticity of demand refers to the response of quantity demanded of a good to the change in price. Of course, when the price decreases, quantity demanded of a good increases and vice-versa but to how much degree is determined by the Price Elasticity of demand.
Mathematically, Price Elasticity of Demand is the ratio of % change in quantity demanded of a good and % change in the price of a good i.e.
Price Elasticity of Demand = % change in quantity demanded of a good / % change in the price of a good
In the problem, since the percentage change in the quantity demanded of a good is greater than the percentage change in the price of the good, the above ratio will be greater than 1. Hence, the demand of the good is price elastic.
Answer: it reduces the supply of loanable funds which raises the interest rate
Explanation: Contractionary monetary policy is a monetary policy that reduces the supply of money and increases interest rates and is carried out by the Fed through selling of bonds. This reduces the supply of loanable funds and increases the interest rate. It is driven by increases in the various base interest rates with a goal to reduce inflation by limiting the amount of active money in circulation.