Answer:
D. The trend between the present and future values of an investment
Explanation:
The future value of an investment formula is:
FV = PV (1 + i)^n
Where:
We can determine that the trend between the present and future values of an investment is not needed to find the future value of an investment, because such trend is not part of the future value of an investment formula, while all the other variables are part of it.
Answer:
The correct answer is B: $384,000
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Blakely charges manufacturing overhead to products by using a predetermined application rate computed based on machine hours.
The following data pertain to the current year:
Budgeted manufacturing overhead: $480,000
Actual manufacturing overhead: $440,000
Budgeted machine hours: 20,000
Actual machine hours: 16,000
First, we need to calculate the manufacturing overhead rate:
manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated manufacturing overhead/ total amount of allocation base
manufacturing overhead rate= 480000/20000= 424 per hour
Allocated manufacturing overhead= overhead rate*actual hours= 24*16000= 384,000
Answer:
Net capital gain = $1,400
Net ordinary income = $300
Explanation:
Long term Capital gain = $1,400 from sale of stock since it was hold for 2 years (more than 1 year)
Ordinary gain = $1,100 - $800 = $300 since automobile was 6 months old and equipment had zero basis
Answer:
Find the attached dividend analysis spreadsheet for Theater Inc.
Explanation:
In analyzing the dividends in the respective years, I first calculated yearly preferred dividends which is $75,000 i.e 25,000*$100*3%
In any year where total dividends declared and paid fell short of $75,000,the entire amount is given as preferred dividends with balance carried over to future years.
Answer:
9.92%
Explanation:
First, find the Annual Percentage Rate (APR).
You can do this with a financial calculator using the following inputs;
PV = -24500
N = 60
PMT = 514.55
then CPT I/Y = 0.792% (this is a monthly rate)
APR = 0.792% *12 = 9.5%
Next, convert APR to EAR;
EAR =
whereby m= number of compounding periods per year ;12 in this case.
EAR =
= 1.0992476 - 1
=0.0992476 or 9.92%
Therefore, the effective rate on this loan is 9.92%
Answer:
Operating Activity
Explanation:
The Indirect method, reconciles the Operating Profit to the Operating Cash Flow by adjusting the following items (1) Non Cash flow items previously added or deducted from Operating Profit and (2) Changes in Working Capital items.
Amortization of bond premium is an item of non-cash flow that was previously deducted from Operating Profit and needs to be added back.