Answers
Answer:
Free cashflow
Explanation:
Free cashflow entails that cash a company generates after it has accounted for cash outflows to support operations and maintain its capital assets. It also measures the cash available to the company's investors and creditors after accounting for its operational cost.
Related Questions
Gilchrist Corporation bases its predetermined overhead rate on the estimated machine-hours for the upcoming year. At the beginning of the most recently completed year, the Corporation estimated the machine-hours for the upcoming year at 35,900 machine-hours. The estimated variable manufacturing overhead was $4.80 per machine-hour and the estimated total fixed manufacturing overhead was $945,606. The predetermined overhead rate for the recently completed year was closest to:
According to the media report how have the commited collusion
Suppose that Italy and Austria both produce fish and shoes. Italy’s opportunity cost of producing a pair of shoes is 5 pounds of fish, while Austria’s opportunity cost of producing a pair of shoes is 10 pounds of fish. By comparing the opportunity cost of producing shoes in the two countries, you can tell that _____ has a comparative advantage in the production of shoes, and ______ has a comparative advantage in the production of fish. Suppose that Italy and Austria consider trading shoes and fish with each other. Italy can gain from specialization and trade as long as it receives more than _______ of fish for each pair of shoes it exports to Austria. Similarly, Austria can gain from trade as long as it receives more than _______ of shoes for each pound of fish it exports to Italy. Based on your answers to the previous question, which of the following terms of trade (that is, price of shoes in terms of fish) would allow both Austria and Italy to gain from trade? Check all that apply.(A) 8 pounds of fish per pair of shoes (B) 1 pound of fish per pair of shoes(C) 15 pounds of fish per pair of shoes(D) 3 pounds of fish per pair of shoes
Use Beneish’s earnings manipulation model to compute the probability that Enronengaged in earnings manipulation for 1998, 1999, and 2000.b. Identify the major reasons for the changes in the probability of earnings manipulationduring the three-year period.
(b) Determine the revenue that Aaron will recognize in 2017.
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
Transaction price is the amount expected to be payed either as wages or revenue in respect of a service delivered.
Commission per policy = $100
Additional commission = $10
Estimated renewal years (based on experience) =4.5 years
Number of policies sold = 100
a)Transaction price
Commission = 100*100 =$10000
Commission on renewal = (100*4.5*10)= $4500
Total transaction price = 10000+4500 = $14500
Revenue for 2017.
In IAS 18 , revenue are recognized when earned.
Therefore the revenue recognized for the year 2017 will be the revenue earned and due to be received and not a future revenue.
The revenue recognized = 100*100 = $10,000
b. A Eurodollar is a U.S. dollar deposited in a bank outside the U.S.
c. The term Eurobond applies only to foreign bonds denominated in U.S. currency.
d. Any bond sold outside the country of the borrower is called an international bond.
e. Foreign bonds are bonds sold by a foreign borrower but denominated in the currency of the country in which the issue is sold.
Answers
Answer:
b. A Eurodollar is a U.S. dollar deposited in a bank outside the U.S.
Explanation:
A Eurodollar is a bond issued by a foreign company in US dollars instead of heir own domestic currency. Eurodollars are issued and redeemable at the foreign country, no the US. It has nothing to do with money deposited in banks outside of the US, since it refers to bonds, not deposits.
b. $13,500.
c. $11,812.
d. $9,190.
Answers
Answer:
option (b) $13,500
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Cost of the plant asset = $96,0003
Salvage value = $12,000
Useful life = 8 years
Now,
using the double-declining-balance method
Depreciation rate =
or
Depreciation rate =
or
Depreciation rate = 0.25 or 25%
Thus,
For year 1
Depreciation expense = Depreciation rate × year book value
= 0.25 × $96,000
= $24,000
Book value for year 2 = $96,000 - $24,000 = $72,000
For year 2
Depreciation expense = Depreciation rate × year 2 book value
= 0.25 × $72,000
= $18,000
Book value for year 3 = $72,000 - $18,000 = $54,000
For year 3
Depreciation expense = Depreciation rate × year 3 book value
= 0.25 × $54,000
= $13,500
Hence,
The correct answer is option (b) $13,500
Answers
Answer:
Option (c) is correct.
Explanation:
Given that,
Beginning inventory = $90,000;
Ending inventory = $70,000;
Cost of goods sold = $968,000
Sales = $1,360,000
Average inventor:
= (Beginning inventory + Ending inventory) ÷ 2
= ($90,000 + $70,000) ÷ 2
= $160,000 ÷ 2
= $80,000
Inventory turnover is the ratio of cost of goods sold and average inventory.
Paul’s inventory turnover in 2020:
= Cost of goods sold ÷ Average Inventory
= $968,000 ÷ $80,000
= 12.1 times
Days in inventory:
= 365 days ÷ Inventory turnover ratio
= 365 days ÷ 12.1
= 30.16 or 30.2 days
Answers
Answer:
D. recorded as an indefinite-lived intangible asset, and annually tested for impairment.
Explanation:
In-process research and development acquired in a business combination is recorded as an indefinite-lived intangible asset, and annually tested for impairment.
In-process research and development costs are essential part of the financial income statement, it assist investors to make good, well-informed and tangible investment decisions in a newly acquired company.
D. Recorded as an indefinite-lived intangible asset, and annually tested for impairment, consistent with accounting standards for intangible assets.
In-process research and development (IPR&D) acquired in a business combination is accounted for as follows:
D. Recorded as an indefinite-lived intangible asset, and annually tested for impairment.
Here's why:
1. Indefinite-Lived Intangible Asset: IPR&D represents the value associated with ongoing research and development projects that have not yet reached the point of commercialization or technological feasibility. It is recognized as an indefinite-lived intangible asset because its future benefits are not constrained by a specific time period. This is in contrast to definite-lived intangible assets, which have a finite useful life and are subject to amortization.
2. Annual Impairment Testing: While IPR&D is initially recognized as an indefinite-lived asset, it is subject to annual impairment testing. This means that, at least annually, the company must assess whether there has been any impairment in the value of the IPR&D asset. If there is an indication that the asset's value has decreased (e.g., the research project is no longer viable or promising), an impairment charge is recorded to reduce the asset's carrying value to its recoverable amount.
3. Consistency with Accounting Standards: The accounting treatment of IPR&D acquired in a business combination is consistent with international accounting standards (e.g., IFRS) and generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP) in many jurisdictions. It reflects the economic reality that IPR&D represents valuable intellectual property that can contribute to the company's future profitability once successfully developed.
In summary, IPR&D acquired in a business combination is initially recognized as an indefinite-lived intangible asset, and it is subject to annual impairment testing to ensure its carrying value accurately reflects its recoverable amount based on its expected future benefits. This accounting treatment aligns with the treatment of other intangible assets and financial reporting standards.
For such more questions on intangible assets.
#SPJ3
Answers
Answer:
a. will reduce profits by $40,000
Explanation:
A: TR - TC = 650 * 2,100 - [$300,000 + (650 * 1,700)]1,365,000 - 1,405,000 = $ - 40,000
Therefore, this campaign will reduce profits by $40,000
Final answer:
The advertising campaign would reduce profits by $40,000. This is calculated by subtracting the campaign cost and additional costs per bed day from the total revenue generated from bed days.
Explanation:
The subject of this question is the financial impact of a proposed advertising campaign on a system's profits. To determine the effect on profits, we need to calculate the difference between the anticipated additional revenue and the anticipated increased costs, and then subtract the cost of the advertising campaign.
In this scenario, the total additional revenue from 650 bed days, at $2,100 each, would be $2,100 x 650 = $1,365,000. The total additional costs from these bed days would be $1,700 x 650 = $1,105,000. Subtracting costs from revenue, we have $1,365,000 - $1,105,000 = $260,000. Finally, we subtract the cost of the campaign, $260,000 - $300,000 = -$40,000. So, the advertising campaign would reduce profits by $40,000. Therefore, the correct choice is (a).
Learn more about Advertising Campaign here:
#SPJ3