A government normally increases taxes to boost it's tax revenue but this also results in the decrease of savings and investments. Higher taxes leaves consumers with less disposable income which then discourages them from saving and investing.
b.YTM assumes the bond is called at the earliest possible date.
c.YTM is a compounded rate of return.
d.YTM assumes all interest payments are reinvested at the YTM rate.
Answer: Options (A), (C) and (D) are correct
Explanation:
Yield to maturity ,is referred to as or known as theoretical IRR or internal rate of return that is earned by a person or investor who tends to buy that bond at the respective market price, also assuming the bond is enclosed till maturity, and further knowing that coupon and other principal payments are to be made on the schedule. YTM is referred to as or known as discount rate on which sum of future cash flow tends to be equal to current price of bond.
B. Prepares and sends the quotation
C. Prepares and sends the invoice
Answer:
C. Prepares and sends the invoice
Explanation:
Answer:
the price of the zero-coupon bond is approximately GBP 4,524.21. This means that an investor would need to pay GBP 4,524.21 upfront to purchase the bond and would receive GBP 10,000 at maturity in 16 years.
Explanation:
A zero-coupon bond is a type of bond that does not pay any interest to the bondholders. Instead, it is issued at a discount from its face value and matures at a future date when the bondholder receives the full face value of the bond.
In this case, the company has issued a zero-coupon bond with a face value of GBP 10,000 and a maturity period of 16 years. The market rate for such bonds is 8%, compounded semiannually.
To calculate the price of the bond, we need to discount the future cash flow of GBP 10,000 back to the present value using the market rate of 8%. Since the interest is compounded semiannually, we need to adjust the interest rate accordingly.
The formula to calculate the present value of a future cash flow is:
PV = FV / (1 + r/n)^(n*t)
Where:
PV = Present Value
FV = Future Value
r = Interest Rate
n = Number of compounding periods per year
t = Number of years
In this case, FV is GBP 10,000, r is 8% (0.08), n is 2 (semiannual compounding), and t is 16 years.
Using the formula, we can calculate the present value as follows:
PV = 10,000 / (1 + 0.08/2)^(2*16)
PV = 10,000 / (1.04)^(32)
PV = 10,000 / 2.208
PV ≈ GBP 4,524.21
Answer: The correct answer is B : a $5,000 decrease in cash, a $15,000 increase in notes payable, and a $20,000 increase in equipment, all entered on the same date.
Explanation: The option B is correct because we are accounting for a purchase of a piece of equipment. The options in the questions show that the purchase was partly through cash and partly through notes payable. Since that is the case, the appropriate entries should record a cash outflow (credit to cash to decrease it), increase in notes payable as a result (credit to notes payable to increase) and subsequently, increase in equipment (debit to equipment). So, the total credits equal the total debit.
Answer:
a. the development of railroad cars that could haul cattle.
Explanation:
The abrupt end of long distance cattle drives in 1885 was primarily due to the development of railroad cars that could haul cattle.
It was the advent of expanding rail road lines that terminated the cattle drive through Kansas because the end points of the cattle trail shifted to meet expanding railroad lines.
It was logical that as the railroads expanded to meet the cattle drive, one had to give way to the other because cattle do stray and trains could haul cattle